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Prelims Practice Questions 24-03-2018

01. Consider the following statements.

  1. India’s first sign language dictionary was launched by Ministry of Human Resource and Development.
  2. The dictionary has been developed by Indian Sign Language Research & Training Centre (ISLR&TC).
  3. Presently it is available in print format only.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

The dictionary has been developed by Indian Sign Language Research & Training Centre (ISLR&TC) under Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD), Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.It aims is to give Deaf people the constitutional right to speech and opportunity of freedom of expression and also bringing them into the main stream of the society. It is available in both print and visual format.

02. Consider the following statements.

  1. The agreement on creation of African Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA) was recently signed in Kigali, Rwanda.
  2. All the members of African Union are signatory to the AfCFTA.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

The African Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA) has been signed by 44 African countries at a summit of the African Union (55 members) in Kigali, Rwanda. It has to be ratifies by the signatories. If successful, it will be the biggest trade trade agreement since the formation of the World Trade Organization in 1995. Nigeria, Africa’s most populous country, as well as a host of others did not sign the agreement.

03. Consider the following statements.

  1. Fluorimeter is used to trace the presence of Uranium in water.
  2. The instrument was developed by Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT), an Indore-based unit of Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

The instrument is capable of examining traces of uranium in a sample of water from 0.1 PPB (Parts-per-billion) unit to 100 PPB.Uranium is a radioactive element. If in any source of water it’s quantity is more than the permissible limit, then use of such water may cause thyroid cancer, blood cancer, depression and other serious ailments. Notably, the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board has fixed the permissible radiological limit to 60 PPB of uranium concentration for drinking water.

04. Consider the following statements.

  1. International Energy Agency is an inter-governmental organization established in 1974 as per framework of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
  2. India is a member.
  3. Its headquarters is located in Paris, France.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

The IEA works to ensure reliable, affordable and clean energy for its 30 member countries and beyond. The main areas of focus are energy security, economic development, environmental awareness and engagement worldwide. The IEZ releases the Global Energy and CO2 status report and World Energy Outlook.

05. Consider the following pairs.

 

TRIBES

STATES

1. Cholanaikkan

Tamil Nadu

2. Bonda

Odisha

3. Birhor

Jharkhand


Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

The Cholanaikkans are an ethnic group of India. They primarily inhabit the southern Kerala State, especially Silent Valley National Park, and are one of the last remaining hunter-gatherer tribes of the region. The Cholanaikkans speak the Cholanaikkan language, which belongs to the Dravidian family.

The Bonda are a Munda ethnic group approximately 12,000 (2011 census) who live in the isolated hill regions of the Malkangiri district of southwestern Odisha, India, near the junction of the three states of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Andhra Pradesh.

Birhor people are a tribal/Adivasi forest people, traditionally nomadic, living primarily in the Indian state of Jharkhand. They speak the Birhor language, which belongs to the Munda group of languages of the Austroasiatic language family.

06. Consider the following statements.

  1. Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) aims to promote tribal art and crafts for the benefit of tribal artisans.
  2. It is under the Ministry of Culture.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) came into existence in 1987. It is a national-level apex organization functioning under the administrative control of Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Govt. of India. The ultimate objective of TRIFED is socio-economic development of tribal people in the country by way of marketing development of the tribal products on which the lives of tribals depends heavily as they spend most of their time and derive major portion of their income.

07. Prompt Corrective Action Framework is related to which one of the following?

  1. An initiative of Finance Ministry to control NPAs of banks.
  2. A measure to create unevenness of minimum support price regime.
  3. An action by the RBI to pose certain restrictions on a bank when certain limits are breached.
  4. A regime to shift from High voltage DC to High voltage AC transmission.

 

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

RBI has issued a policy action guideline (first in May 2014 and revised effective from April 1, 2017) in the form of Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) Framework if a commercial bank’s financial condition worsens below a mark.  The PCA framework specifies the trigger points or the level in which the RBI will intervene with corrective action. This trigger points are expressed in terms of parameters for the banks.

The parameters that invite corrective action from the central bank are:

  1. Capital to Risk weighted Asset Ratio (CRAR)
  2. Net Non-Performing Assets (NPA) and
  3. Return on Assets (RoA)
  4. Leverage ratio

PCA framework allows RBI to pose certain restrictions on a bank when the above siad limits are breached. The restrictions includes halting branch expansion, NPA limit etc.The PCA framework is applicable only to commercial banks and not extended to co-operative banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFCs).

08. Consider the following statements.

  1. Productive irrigation is meant to provide sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity.
  2. Protective irrigation is meant to protect crops from disease and pests by spraying pesticides mixed in water.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Protective agriculture is to protect crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency. It aims to provie soil moisture to maximum possible area.

09. Consider the following statements.

  1. The main purpose of Payment of Gratuity act, 1972 is to provide social security to workmen after retirement, whether retirement is a result of the rules of superannuation, or physical disablement or impairment of vital part of the body.
  2. The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 applies to establishments employing 20 or more persons.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 allows for the payment of gratuity to employees in any establishment, factory, mine, oil field, plantation, port, railways, company, or shop employing 10 or more workers. Recently the  amendment bill is passed in Parliament.

Some of the features in Payment of Gratuity (amendment bill), 2017:

  • The 2017 Bill empowers the central government to (i) notify the period of maternity leave eligible for qualifying as continuous service; and (ii) determine the amount of gratuity available to employees.
  • The Bill removes the reference to 12 weeks in the 1972 Act and empowers the central government to notify the maximum maternity leave.
  • Under the Act, the maximum amount of gratuity payable to an employee cannot exceed Rs 10 lakh. The Bill removes the existing ceiling and states that the ceiling may be notified by the central government.

10. Which of the following deserts are located in Australia?

  1. Great Sandy Desert
  2. Gibson Desert
  3. Sturt Stony Desert
  4. Tanami Desert

Select the correct answer from the given codes.

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

The Great Sandy Desert is the second largest desert of Australia. It is located in the northern section of Western Australia, just south of the coastline. The Great Sandy Desert is home to the Kata Tjuta – Uluru, otherwise known as Ayers – a world heritage site.

The Gibson Desert can be found in the central part of Western Australia. It happens to be one of the smaller deserts in Australia.

The Sturt Stony Desert is located in the northeastern part of South Australia. It is surrounded by the Simpson Desert to its west, the Strzelecki Desert to the southeast, and the Tirari Desert to the southwest. The Sturt Stony Desert is characterized by its “gibber desert.” A gibber desert is one that is covered by a crowded surface of stones with shiny tops.

The Tanami Desert is located in the northern territory in the central part of Australia. It is found just east of the Great Sandy Desert.

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