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Daily Current Affairs Prelims Quiz 21-09-2026

1.With reference to the European Union (EU), consider the following statements:

  1. The European Council is the principal legislative body of the European Union and ordinarily adopts EU laws jointly with the European Parliament.
  2. In the Council of the European Union, qualified majority voting requires the support of at least 55% of the Member States representing at least 65% of the EU population.
  3. The European Commission has the general responsibility of initiating Union legislative proposals, except where the Treaties provide otherwise.
  4. The European Parliament is directly elected by citizens of the Member States and exercises legislative and budgetary functions jointly with the Council of the European Union.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c
  • Statement 1 — Incorrect: The European Council consists mainly of the Heads of State or Government of EU Member States and provides the Union with its broad political direction and priorities. It does not exercise legislative functions. Legislative functions are principally performed jointly by the European Parliament and the Council of the European Union.
  • Statement 2 — Correct: The Council generally uses qualified majority voting (QMV). Under the double-majority rule, a proposal normally requires at least 55% of Member States (15 of 27) representing at least 65% of the EU population.
  • Statement 3 — Correct: The European Commission generally has the right of legislative initiative: EU legislative acts are normally adopted on the basis of a Commission proposal, subject to treaty exceptions.
  • Statement 4 — Correct: Members of the European Parliament (EP) are elected directly for five-year terms. The Parliament exercises legislative and budgetary functions jointly with the Council, besides political control and other functions.

2.With reference to the Artemis Accords, consider the following statements:

  1. They are a legally binding international treaty governing all activities in outer space.
  2. They are grounded in the 1967 Outer Space Treaty and seek to establish common principles for safe, peaceful and sustainable civil space exploration.
  3. The Accords recognise the extraction and utilisation of space resources as compatible with the Outer Space Treaty, subject to relevant international law.
  4. The concept of “safety zones” under the Accords is intended to establish permanent territorial claims over portions of the Moon.
  5. India is a signatory to the Artemis Accords.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Statement 1 — Incorrect:
The Artemis Accords are a non-binding set of principles, guidelines and best practices, rather than a legally binding international treaty. They are grounded in existing international space law, particularly the Outer Space Treaty.

Statement 2 — Correct:
The Accords were established in 2020 and reinforce principles contained in the 1967 Outer Space Treaty, with emphasis on safe, peaceful, transparent and sustainable civil space exploration.

Statement 3 — Correct:
The Accords provide that space-resource extraction and utilisation can be undertaken consistently with the Outer Space Treaty and in support of safe and sustainable space activities.

Statement 4 — Incorrect:
“Safety zones” are not territorial claims. They are temporary arrangements intended to facilitate notification and coordination of activities and prevent harmful interference between space operations.

Statement 5 — Correct:
India signed the Artemis Accords in 2023, joining the international framework for cooperation in civil space exploration. India is listed among the signatories.

3.With reference to Doppler Weather Radar (DWR), consider the following statements:

  1. Unlike conventional weather radar, a Doppler Weather Radar can provide information about the radial velocity of precipitation particles and other targets.
  2. Radar reflectivity, generally expressed in dBZ, can provide information useful for estimating precipitation intensity and identifying storm structure.
  3. Doppler Weather Radar directly measures the complete three-dimensional wind vector at every point within its coverage.
  4. DWR observations can be used for nowcasting severe weather events, including thunderstorms and cyclones.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Statement 1 — Correct:
The key advantage of Doppler Weather Radar is its ability to measure radial velocity—the component of motion toward or away from the radar. Conventional radar primarily provides information such as reflectivity and range.

Statement 2 — Correct:
Reflectivity represents the strength of the radar signal returned from atmospheric targets and is expressed in dBZ. Higher reflectivity generally indicates stronger precipitation echoes and can help forecasters assess rainfall and storm structure.

Statement 3 — Incorrect:
DWR does not directly measure the complete three-dimensional wind vector everywhere. Doppler radar primarily measures radial velocity. The actual wind direction and speed have to be derived using appropriate observations and processing techniques.

Statement 4 — Correct:
DWR data are used for detecting and monitoring thunderstorms, hailstorms and cyclones, as well as rainfall estimation and nowcasting. IMD also uses radar-derived products for forecasting and aviation-related applications.

4.With reference to the Global Financial Centres Index (GFCI), consider the following statements:

  1. The GFCI is published jointly by the Z/Yen Group and the China Development Institute (CDI).
  2. It evaluates the competitiveness of financial centres using both quantitative/instrumental factors and assessments from financial-services professionals.
  3. Business Environment, Human Capital, Infrastructure, Financial Sector Development and Reputation are among the broad areas used to assess financial-centre competitiveness.
  4. The GFCI is an index published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to rank countries according to the strength of their financial systems.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Statement 1 — Correct:
The Global Financial Centres Index (GFCI) is produced by the Z/Yen Group in partnership with the China Development Institute (CDI). It is published twice a year, generally in March and September.

Statement 2 — Correct:
The GFCI combines two broad sources of information:

  • Instrumental factors — objective quantitative indicators obtained from external sources such as the World Bank, OECD and UN.
  • Financial-centre assessments — assessments submitted through an ongoing online questionnaire by financial-services professionals.

Thus, it is not merely a perception-based survey.

Statement 3 — Correct:
The GFCI groups instrumental factors into five broad areas of competitiveness:

  • Business Environment
  • Human Capital
  • Infrastructure
  • Financial Sector Development
  • Reputation

Statement 4 — Incorrect:
The GFCI is not an IMF index, nor does it primarily rank countries. It evaluates financial centres, which are predominantly cities or locations that function as hubs for financial activity. The IMF produces several financial and macroeconomic datasets and reports, but it does not publish the GFCI.

With reference to SEMICON India and India’s semiconductor ecosystem, consider the following statements:

  1. SEMICON India is jointly organised by the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) and SEMI.
  2. The event is intended to bring together stakeholders across the semiconductor and microelectronics value chain, including industry, government, academia and start-ups.
  3. The India Semiconductor Mission functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology and is responsible for implementing semiconductor and display-related schemes.
  4. SEMICON India is exclusively focused on semiconductor fabrication and does not cover areas such as semiconductor packaging, design, workforce development or start-ups.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Statement 1 — Correct:
SEMICON India is jointly organised by the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) and SEMI, the global industry association serving the semiconductor and microelectronics industries. The 2026 edition was held from 17–19 September 2026 at Yashobhoomi, New Delhi.

Statement 2 — Correct:
SEMICON India follows a value-chain approach, bringing together industry, government, academia and start-ups. The 2026 edition included country and state pavilions, a startup pavilion, workforce-development activities and a DeepTech Hackathon.

Statement 3 — Correct:
The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) is an independent business division under the Digital India Corporation, within the administrative framework of MeitY. It serves as the nodal agency for implementing semiconductor and display-related schemes and aims to build a strong semiconductor and display ecosystem in India.

Statement 4 — Incorrect:
SEMICON India is not restricted to semiconductor fabrication. Its scope encompasses the wider microelectronics ecosystem, including design-to-product, supply chains, components and materials, display technologies, sustainability, start-ups and workforce development.

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