1. Habitat rights meant for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG) are granted under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. Which one of the following PVTGs do not have the habitat rights?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : a
Habitat rights to PVTGs
Recently Baiga PVTG in Chhattisgarh become the 2nd in the State to get habitat rights after Kamar PVTG.
Habitat – It includes the area comprising the customary habitat and such other habitats in reserved forests and protected forests of primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities and other forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes.
Habitat rights – Rights over their customary territory of habitation, socio-cultural practices, economic and livelihood means, intellectual knowledge of biodiversity and ecology, traditional knowledge of use of natural resources, as well as protection and conservation of their natural and cultural heritage.
However, it excludes any traditional right of hunting or trapping or extracting a part of the body of any species of wild animal
They are given to PVTGs under Section 3(1) (e) of The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (Forest Rights Act, 2006).
The title may not be an ownership title in the nature of a private property owner, but consent and consultation of the gram sabha will be needed for any developmental activity.
Coverage – As of April 2024, out of 75 PVTG in India, only 3 have habitat rights.
1st one was Bharia PVTG in Madhya Pradesh
The Kamar and the Baiga tribe in Chhattisgarh.
PVTGs – There are 75 PVTGs out of 705 STs, spread over 18 states and 1 Union Territory (A&N Islands).
Highest PVTGs is present in Odisha followed by Andhra Pradesh.
The Baiga – An ethnic group found in Central India primarily in the state of Madhya Pradesh, and in smaller numbers in Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.
2. Consider the following statements with respect to Parliamentary Committees.
An allegation of corruption against a Member of Parliament (MP) can be sent to either Ethics Committee or Privileges Committee.
An allegation of corruption against a non-Member of Parliament can be sent only to Privileges Committee and not to Ethics Committee.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
Ethics committee
The Lok Sabha Ethics Committee inquired regarding a complaint of cash for query against a sitting Member of Parliament.
An allegation of corruption against an MP – It can be sent to either Ethics or Privileges Committee, but usually more serious accusations go to the latter.
Privileges Committee – It can take up cases of misconduct that involve both MPs and non- MPs.
Ethics Committee – It can take up only cases of misconduct that involve MPs.
History –Vohra committee report submitted in 1995 pointed out the nexus between criminal gangs, police, bureaucracy and politicians have come clearly out in various parts of the country.
Ethics Committee
About
Lok Sabha
Rajya Sabha
Established
2000
1997
Members
Should not contain more than 15 members
10 members including Chairman
Nominated by
Speaker
Chairman
Chairperson
It is appointed by Speaker amongst the Committee members
It is from the largest party in the House
Term
Not exceeding 1 year
Not exceeding 1 year
Functions
It enforces the code of conduct of members of Parliament.
It examines the cases of misconduct and recommends appropriate action.
It is engaged in maintaining discipline and decorum in Parliament.
3. Which of the following statutory acts provide mechanism for the process of ‘mediation’?
Mediation Act of 2023
Companies Act of 2013
Commercial Courts Act of 2015
Legal Services Authority Act of 1987
Micro Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act of 2006
Select the answer using the code given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : a
The Mediation Act, 2023
Recently, some portions of the Mediation Act of 2023 came into force.
Mediation – It is a voluntary, low-cost, and confidential process where disputing parties mutually find a solution with the help of an impartial third-party mediator.
Alternate Dispute Resolution
Statutory backing of Mediation
Mediation
Arbitration
Conciliation
Negotiation
Legal Services Authority Act of 1987
Micro Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act of 2006
Companies Act of 2013
Commercial Courts Act of 2015
Mediation Act of 2023
Features of the Mediation Act – It aims to foster a link between the mediation and the arbitration of commercial disputes.
Parties must attempt to settle civil or commercial disputes by mediation before approaching any court or certain tribunals.
Even if they fail to reach a settlement through pre-litigation mediation, the court or tribunal may at any stage refer the parties to mediation if they request for the same.
Excluded list of disputes – Not fit for mediation
Related to claims against minors or persons of unsound mind,
Involving criminal prosecution, and
Affecting the rights of third parties.
The central government may amend this list.
Applicability – To mediations conducted in India
Involving only domestic parties
Involving at least one foreign party and relating to a commercial dispute (i.e., international mediation)
If the central or state government is a party, the Act will apply to commercial disputes, and other disputes as notified.
Mediation process – It must be completed within 180 days (may be extended by 180 days by the parties).
A party may withdraw from mediation after two sessions.
Court annexed mediation – It must be conducted as per the rules framed by the Supreme Court or High Courts.
Mediators – They may be appointed by
The parties by agreement, or
Mediation service provider (an institution administering mediation).
Mediation Council of India – Established by Central government.
Nature of the mediation – Agreements resulting from mediation (other than community mediation) will be final, binding, and enforceable in the same manner as court judgments.
It may be challenged on grounds of fraud, corruption, impersonation, or related to disputes not fit for mediation.
Community mediation – It will be conducted by a panel of 3 mediators to resolve disputes likely to affect the peace and harmony amongst residents of a locality.
About
Arbitration and Conciliation Act 2021
Mediation Act 2023
Institutional mechanism
Arbitration Council of India (Yet to be implemented)
Mediation Council of India
Service providers
Mediation services
Mediation service &
secretarial assistance
Verdict
Arbitral award
Mediated settlement agreement
4. Consider the following statements.
Statement-I: Household savings has three components such as physical assets, financial assets and ornaments of gold & silver.
Statement-II: Household savings refer to money left after the household pays taxes and spends on the consumption of goods and services.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
Household Savings
Household sector’s savings in financial assets has shown a sharp decline to 5.1% of GDP in 2022-23.
Household savings – It refer to money left after the household pays taxes and spends on the consumption of goods and services.
3 components
Financial assets– Currency, bank deposits, pension, insurance, equity and related products.
Physical assets– Investment in fixed assets of construction
Gold and silver ornaments
Household savings rate = (Household savings/Personal disposable income) x 100%
Factors influencing Household Savings – Income, interest rate, future income expectation, wealth and tax.
Status of Household Savings – The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data showed that household financial savings were at 5.1% of GDP in FY23, almost a 40-year low.
The annual financial liabilities of households increased by 5.8% of GDP in FY23, signalling an unusually high reliance on loans for consumption and real estate purchases.
This rate of increase in financial liabilities was the 2nd highest since India's Independence.
Household assets saw a sharp decline from Rs 22.8 trillion in FY21, to Rs 13.76 trillion in FY23.
Household debt, as measured by the stock of financial liabilities, remained significantly elevated at 37.6% of GDP in FY23.
The primary reasons behind the subdued savings and increased borrowing seem to be stagnant or declining incomes for households and small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs), occurring in the midst of high inflation.
5. Consider the following statements with respect to Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
The Centre has the power to notify a conservation reserve.
Schedule IV of the Act deals with protection of plant species.
The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body established under this Act.
How many of the above statement (s) is/ are not correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act, 2022
Excessive number of species have been included in the new schedules of the Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act, 2022, with no consultation or process.
Enacted in – 1972.
Objectives – To prohibit the hunting of wild animals and to protect and manage of wildlife areas and the species in these areas.
To establish new protected areas such as National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Importance – It paved the way for establishment of The National and State Board for Wildlife, Central Zoo Authority and National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
Earlier Amendments – 1982, 1991, 1993, 2002 and 2006.
2022 Amendment – It empowers Centre to notify a conservation reserve.
Rationalised Schedules – Reduces the number from 6 to 4
Schedule I — Animal species with highest level of protection including those which are critically endangered.
Schedule II – Animal species with a lesser degree of protection
Schedule III – Protected Plant species
Schedule IV – Specimens listed in the Appendices under CITES (scheduled specimens)
Implementation of CITES – Introduced of new chapter for this and enables Centre to designate a management and scientific authority.
Prohibit invasive alien species – Empowers Centre to regulate or prohibit the import, trade, possession or proliferation of such species.
Definition of Vermin – It means any wild animal notified under Section 62 of Wildlife Protection Act.
Decentralisation of power – Allow the state to form an Advisory Committee consisting of Chief Wildlife Warden, members of legislature, wildlife NGOs and Panchayat Raj to manage wildlife sanctuaries.
Empowers the Gram Sabha and other local village institutions to collectively protect the forests, wild animals and biodiversity and take action against any activity posing threat to wildlife.
The State may declare areas adjacent to national parks and sanctuaries as a conservation reserve, for protecting flora and fauna, and their habitat.
Surrender of captive animals – Persons shall voluntarily surrender any captive animals or its products to the Chief Wild Life Warden.
No compensation will be paid to the person for surrendering and such items become property of the State government.
Extended functions of Zoos – It will also serve as the areas for ex-situ conservation, rescue centers and breeding centers apart from exhibition centres.
Dilution of conservation – It allows low intensity, small-scale fishing in rivers and other water bodies in and around protected areas.
Relaxes the norms on grazing of cattle and use of drinking water by the local communities living inside the protected areas until they are settled elsewhere.
Allows transfer or transport of a captive elephant for a religious or any other purpose subject to such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Central Government.
Animal Welfare Board of India – It is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws.
It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
6. Consider the following statements with respect to the Quantum Dots.
Quantum dots are nanocrystals of a semiconducting material.
The properties of quantum dots can be changed by changing their size.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
Quantum Dots
Nobel Prize for Chemistry 2023 has been awarded to Alexei I. Ekimov, Louis E. Brus, and Moungi G. Bawendi for the discovery and synthesis of quantum dots.
Quantum dots – They are man-made nanoscale crystals that exhibit unique optical and electronic properties, including the ability to transport electrons and emit light of various colors when exposed to UV light.
Effect of light– When light is shined on a quantum dot, it absorbs and then re-emits it at a different frequency.
By manipulating their size, one can precisely control their properties and make them emit light of specific colours when they are excited by light
Smaller dots – Emits bluer light
Larger dots – Emits redder light
This happens because light shone on the dot energises some electrons to jump from one energy level to a higher one, before jumping back and releasing the energy at a different frequency.
7. Phonotaxis, sometimes seen in the news is related to?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
Phonotaxis
Phonotaxis is the movement of an animal in response to a sound.
It has mostly been observed among crickets, moths, frogs, and toads, among a few other creatures.
The click of crickets in the evening or frogs croaking during the monsoons are due to Phonotaxis.
There are 2 types of Phonotaxis:
Positive
Negative
The purpose of positive phonotaxis is attraction.
It usually happens when the females of a particular species are attracted to the sounds made by the males.
Negative Phonotaxis indicate to repel or warn or move away.
Crickets in particular have been found to steer themselves away from low-intensity ultrasound typically associated with bats (which use it for echolocation).
8. Which of the following statements with respect to the Dancing Frogs is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
Dancing Frogs
The Wildlife Trust of India after analysing the second edition of the Global Amphibian Assessment said that thedancing frogs are the most threatened amphibian genus of India.
Dancing frogs are members of the Micrixalus genus and there are about 24 frog species in this family.
Their preferred habitats are shola grasslands, myristica swamps and evergreen forests within the Western Ghats, where they mainly reside near slow-moving perennial streams.
The males stretch up their hind legs one at a time and wave their webbed toes in the air in a rapid motion akin to a dance.
The signature dance move called ‘foot-flagging’ serves the dual purpose of attracting a female while sending out a warning signal to other male frogs in the area.
According to the 2nd edition of the Global Amphibian Assessment, the dancing frogs are the most threatened amphibian genus of India.
It is also the 5th most threatened genus in the world with 92% of its species in the threatened category.
Budgett Frog - Other common names are Hippo Frog and the Freddie Kruger Frog.
Habitat – In inland waters in Paraguay, Argentina and Bolivia.
They are highly intelligent and very aggressive.
When frightened, they inflate themselves, stand up on their short legs and attack the potential with an open huge mouth followed up by a high-pitched scream.
Purple Frog - Also known as pignose frog or Mahabali frog.
It is believed to have co-existed with dinosaurs.
It remains underground for almost a year except for 2-3 weeks during the monsoon as it comes out to mate.
9. Consider the following statements regarding the Quick Response (QR) code.
QR codes can hold more data than barcodes.
QR codes can be read from all directions, while barcodes can only be read from one direction.
Barcodes are one-dimensional (1D) whereas QR codes are 3 dimensional (3D).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
Quick Response (QR) Codes
Recently the Cybersecurity experts have found hackers using Quick response (QR) codes for phishing activities.
QR was invented by Masahiro Hara, a Japanese engineer in 1994.
QR Code is a type of 2D barcode or printed representation of data that can be scanned for data retrieval whereas barcode has 2 types - 1 dimensional and 2 dimensional.
QR codes can hold more data than barcodes.
They are less likely to be damaged than barcodes.
QR codes can be read from all directions, while barcodes can only be read from one direction.
QRs have improved security with encryption.
10. Consider the following pairs
Art Region
Pichwai Painting – Mysore
Dogra architecture – Jammu
Vajra Mushti Kalaga – Kerala
How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : a
Pichwai Painting
Origin – It is a 400-year-old art whose roots are from Nathdwara town in Rajasthan.
Theme – Various stages of Lord Krishna’s life, including his childhood, youth, and adulthood.
It is typically done on cloth, usually khadi but now being produced on various mediums such as paper, canvas, and silk.
Different schools of Pichwai — Nathdwara, Kishangarh and Bundi in Rajasthan and Deccan school
Materials used – Natural colors made from minerals and plant extracts.
Stone pigments are used for gold and silver tones.
Usage – As a backdrop for hindu deities in temples.
They are typically hung behind the idol of Shrinathji, a local form of Krishna and the centre of Pushtimarg worship.
Dogra architecture
Dogra architecture is a distinct culture that formed in Jammu, where cultures mixed together.
Dogra Dynasty – Dynasty of Hindu Rajputs who ruled Jammu & Kashmir from 1846 to 1947.
Some examples of Dogra architecture include:
Mubark mandi – A hub of Dogra culture until 1947, with a jharokha style of balcony.
Maharaj Gunj – A market area with a variety of colonial and vernacular architecture.
Rani Charak Mahal – A mahal with phenomenal architecture and interiors.
Vajra Mushti Kalaga
The ‘’vajra mushti kalaga’’ is a form of wrestling or a traditional Indian martial art that incorporates various hand-to-hand combat techniques, such as grappling, wrestling, and striking.
It entails two jettys taking a swipe at each other’s head with a small metal weapon called a knuckleduster.
Vajra Mushti matches are still held during the annual Mysore Dasara festival at Mysore Palace.
The tradition dates back to the Wadiyar dynasty in 1610.
11. Consider the following statements with respect to West Antarctic Ice Shelf Melt.
It lies between the Weddell Sea and Ross Sea.
Thwaites Glacier, the widest glacier on Earth, is situated in this region.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
West Antarctic Ice Shelf Melt
West Antarctic Ice Sheet – It is Antarctica’s largest contributor to sea-level rise which has enough ice to increase the global mean sea level by as much as 5 metres (m).
Thwaites Glacier, widest glacier on Earth is located in this region.
It is situated between Weddell Sea and Ross Sea.
Cause of melting – Due to the warming of the Southern Ocean mainly the Amundsen Sea region.
Amundsen Sea, off the coast of West Antarctica, will warm roughly 3 times faster than the historical rate through the rest of this century which will lead to much more rapid melting of ice shelves.
Impacts – Sea-level rises of around 1 metre may threat hundreds of millions of people worldwide at risk of coastal flooding.
12. Consider the following pairs.
Certification Mark Certification Agencies
Eco mark – Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
India Organic Certification – Department of Agriculture
AGMARK – Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)
How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : a
Certification and Certification Agencies
Certification Mark
Purpose
Issued by
ISI Mark (Mandatory for certain products)
Certifies industrial products comply with Indian Standards
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
BIS Hallmark (Voluntary)
Certifies purity of gold and silver jewellery
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
AGMARK (Voluntary)
Certifies agricultural products conform to approved standards
Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare under the Agricultural Produce Act,1937
FPO Mark (Mandatory)
Certifies processed fruit products were made in a hygienic ‘food-safe’ environment and are fit for consumption
Fruit Products Order, 1955
Green and Brown Dot
Indicates whether the food item is vegetarian or non-vegetarian
–
India Organic Certification (Voluntary)
Certifies organic farm products meet National Standards for Organic Products
Testing centers accredited by the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) under the National Program for Organic Production of the Government of India
Eco mark (Voluntary)
Certifies products meet standards to cause the least impact on the ecosystem
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
Non-Polluting Vehicle Mark (Mandatory)
Certifies motor vehicles conform to relevant Bharat Stage emission standards
Bharat Stage emission standards
13. Which of the following entities organized the Critical Minerals and Clean Energy Summit 2023?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
Critical Minerals and Clean Energy Summit, 2023
The 1st edition of the International Energy Agency’s Critical Minerals and Clean Energy Summit was held at Paris, France.
It aims to discuss the challenges and opportunities behind rising demand for critical minerals by sharing experiences.
Critical minerals are minerals like copper, lithium, nickel and cobalt that are essential for developing clean energy technologies, economic development and national security.
6 Key Action Areas of the Summit
Accelerating progress towards diversified minerals supplies.
Unlocking the power of technology and recycling.
Promoting transparency in the markets.
Enhancing the availability of reliable information.
Creating incentives for sustainable and responsible production.
Strengthening efforts on international collaboration.
Based on the ‘Report of the Committee on Identification of Critical Minerals’ constituted by the Ministry of Mines, India classifies 30 critical minerals as essential for its economic development and national security.
14. Consider the following statements with respect to Cricket.
The Los Angeles Olympics, 2028 will be the first Olympics to feature the Cricket sport.
Cricket was featured for the first time in Common wealth games in the year 202
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : d
Cricket in Olympics
International Olympic Committee approves cricket among other 5 sports for 2028 Los Angeles Olympics whose final voting will be held soon.
The 5 new sports under consideration are:
Twenty20 cricket
Baseball/softball
Flag football (non-contact American football)
Squash
Lacrosse
1900 Paris Olympics – Cricket was last featured at this event.
Roadmap of Cricket in Global stage
In 2019, International Cricket Council (ICC) took a decisive move to make cricket a global sport.
In 2022, it returned to the Commonwealth Games 2022, when women's T20s team played.
Cricket is an optional sport at the quadrennial Commonwealth Games. It first appeared at the 1998 Commonwealth Games, with a men's tournament.
BCCI agreed to come under the ambit of India's National Anti-Doping Agency, an affiliate of the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
IOC mandates that every global sport body must be WADA compliant.
T20 cricket is the sport’s shortest international format.
15. U.N. Environment Programme's (UNEP) Cool Coalition, sometimes seen in the news, is led by?
Climate Action Network
Climate and Clean Air Coalition
Kigali Cooling Efficiency Program
Sustainable Energy for All (SEforALL)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
UNEP Cool Coalition
The COP28 Presidency held by the United Arab Emirates is leading the Global Cooling Pledge alongside the UNEP Cool Coalition.
Cool Coalition is dedicated to inspiring ambition, mobilizing action, and accelerating progress toward UN 2019 Climate Change Summit.
The Cool Coalition is a global multi-stakeholder network that connects a wide range of key actors towards a rapid global transition to efficient and climate-friendly cooling.
It is a unified initiative that links action across the Kigali Amendment, Paris Agreement and Sustainable Development Goals.
The 3 pillars of the cool coalition includes Advocacy, Action and Knowledge Exchange.
The Cool Coalition is led by:
UN Environment,
Climate and Clean Air Coalition,
Kigali Cooling Efficiency Program and
Sustainable Energy for All (SEforALL).
Climate Action Network is not part of this initiative.
Cool Champions are thought leaders from government, private sector and civil society to raise awareness about the need for efficient and climate friendly cooling and mobilize their peers to join this effort.
Three indigenous products of Arunachal Pradesh such as Yak churpi, Khamti rice & Tangsa textile received GI tag.
Yak churpi - It is the first ever yak milk product, Arunachal Yak Churpi, to receive the Geographical Indication.
Churpi is prepared from the milk of Arunachali yak, a unique breed found in West Kameng and Tawang districts of the state.
It is reared by tribal yak pastoralists known as Brokpas who migrate along with their yaks to higher reaches during summers and descend to mid-altitude mountainous regions in winters.
Churpi is an excellent source of proteins and is frequently used as a substitute for vegetables by tribal yak herders in the vegetation-starved cold and hilly mountainous regions of the state.
Khaw Tai – Is a chewy sticky rice variety of Namsai region being cultivated by traditional Khampti tribal farmers in Arunachal Pradesh. It is also called as Khamti rice.
Tangsa textile – Textile products of the Tangsa tribe of Changlang district, Arunachal Pradesh are famous for their exotic designs and colours.
17. Consider the following statements with respect to Question Hour
It is the first hour of every parliamentary sitting.
During this hour, Members of Parliament are allowed to ask questions to the ministers as well as non-ministers.
The process for conducting the Question Hour is regulated by the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
Question Hour
Question Hour – It is the 1st hour of every parliamentary sitting.
Duration – 1 hour
MPs ask questions to ministers and also to the private members (MPs who are not ministers).
Procedure for Questionnaire
Governed by
Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha
Directions by Speaker, Lok Sabha
Prior notice – Addressed to the lower house’s Secretary-General.
Submissionof notices – Either through Member’s Portal or through the printed forms as in the Parliamentary Notice Office.
It should not be more than 5 notices/ day.
Admissibility of question – Decided by Lok Sabha Speaker
Conditions for admissibility – It shouldn’t allow questions containing
More than 150 words and on matters which may weaken the unity and integrity of the country
Arguments, defamatory statements or referring to the character of any person except in their official capacity
Queries raising larger issues of policy
Any subject pending judgment before any court/tribunal/body or under Parliamentary Committee
18. UMMEED, sometimes seen in the news, is an initiative of?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
UMMEED
Recently, the Union Ministry of Education (MoE) released the draft guidelines for schools to prevent suicide among students.
UMMEED – Understand, Motivate, Manage, Empathise, Empower, and Develop (UMMEED).
It is released by Department of School Education, Ministry of Education.
The Objectives include:
To prevent suicides among school students
To serve as directions to schools for enhancing sensitivity, understanding, and providing support in case of reported self-harm.
To de-stigmatise mental health concerns through storytelling, rallies, posters, exhibitions and other activities.
These guidelines align perfectly with the NEP’s (National Education Policy) vision of holistic education.
The Plan of Action is setting up of School Wellness Teams (SWT), orientations, and immediate response to vulnerable students.
Composition of SWT – School counsellors, students, teachers, supporting staff, a representative of the school management committee under the leadership of the school principal.
Functions of SWT – It implements school activities in creating awareness about mental well-being.
19. Consider the following statements:
It is a tri-partite forum that brings together representatives of government, business and academia.
Pakistan and Myanmar are not members of this forum.
Its permanent secretariat is located at Ebene, Mauritius.
The statements given above corresponds to which of the following groups?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)
Recently Indian Ocean Rim Association’s Council of Ministers meeting was held under the theme ‘Reinforcing Indian Ocean Identity’.
A dynamic inter-governmental organisation and a regional forum.
It is a tri-partite forum that brings together representatives of government, business and academia.
Established in – 1997.
The vision for IORA originated during a visit by late President Nelson Mandela of South Africa to India in 1995.
Permanent secretariat – Ebene, Mauritius
Objective – Strengthening regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian Ocean Region.
Apex body – Council of (Foreign) Ministers (COM) which meets annually
Membership – 23 Member States and 12 Dialogue Partners
India is a member and France was the latest member.
Non-members – Pakistan, Myanmar
Dialogue Partners – Italy, Japan, Germany, China, USA, UK, Russia, Turkey, Korea, Egypt and Saudi Arabia
Troika – Established by the Council of Ministers, which consists of
Chair - Sri Lanka for 2 years (2023-2025)
Vice Chair – India
Previous chair – Bangladesh
2 Specialised agencies of IORA
Regional Centre for Science and Technology Transfer (RCSTT) at Tehran, Iran.
Fisheries Support Unit (FSU) at Oman.
G20 – It is the premier forum for international economic cooperation.
It has 19 members and 2 regional forums, while Pakistan and Myanmar are not its members.
It does not have a permanent secretariat.
The Presidency is supported by the Troika – previous, current and incoming Presidency.
20. Consider the following statements with respect to Setu Bandhan Scheme
The scheme is designed to enhance inter-state connectivity, particularly in rural border areas.
The scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
Setu Bandhan Scheme
Recently the ministry of road transport and highways approved 7 bridge projects in Arunachal Pradesh under the Setu Bandhan Scheme.
The Setu Bandhan scheme have been introduced to improve inter-state connectivity, especially on the rural areas at the borders where state roads do not get the required attention.
The scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH).
The scheme is different from “Setu Bharatam” scheme.
Setu Bharatam is an ambitious programme with an investment of Rs. 50,000 crore to build bridges for safe and seamless travel on National Highways.
The programme aims at making all national highways Railway Level Crossing free by 2019.