0.7731
7667766266
x

CA Revision Module - Test 17 (September 2023)

1) Consider the following statement with respect to G20 2023 Summit.

  1. The theme of G20 Summit 2023, ‘One Earth One Family One Future’ was drawn from Mundaka Upanishad.
  2. It resulted in adoption of New Delhi Declaration, reflecting India's motto of ‘Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, Sabka Vishwas’.
  3. African Union was formally made a permanent member of the G20, on par with the European Union.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

G20 Summit 2023

  • Presidency – India
  • 2023 Theme – ‘One Earth One Family One Future’ meaning ‘Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’ (the whole earth is a family).
  • It was written in Devanagari script, drawn from the ancient Sanskrit text of the Maha Upanishad.
  • It resulted in adoption of New Delhi Declaration, which reflects India's motto of "Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, Sabka Vishwas" –“Together with all, Development for all, Trust of all”.
  • Outcome – The 55-member African Union was formally made permanent member of the G20, on par with the European Union.
  • G20 – It was established in 1999, after the Asian financial crisis as a regular forum for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors.
  • Aim – To study, review, and promote high level discussion of policy issues pertaining to international financial stability.
  • Member – 19 countries (Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, UK, US, Russia, Australia, Canada, Saudi Arabia, India, South Africa, Turkey, Argentina, Brazil, Mexico, China and Indonesia), European Union and African Union.
  • It does not have permanent secretariat.
  • G20Presidency – It is chosen by a rotation system amongst the member countries.
  • India holds the Presidency of the G20 from December 2022 to 30 November 2023.
  • Troika – It comprises of the past, present, and future presidents.
  • Troika 2023 includes Indonesia, India, and Brazil.

2) The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam 2023 that was cleared by both houses of Parliament proposes 33% reservation for women in which of the following?

  1. Lok Sabha
  2. State Legislative Assembly
  3. Legislative Assembly of National Capital Territory of New Delhi
  4. Legislative Assembly of Union Territory of Puducherry
  5. Legislative Assembly of Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir

Select the answer using the code given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Women Reservation Act, 2023

President has given her assent to the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (128th Amendment) Bill, 2023 and now it will be known as the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023.

  • Provides 33% reservation for women in Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assembly, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
  • It will also apply to the seats reserved for SCs and STs in Lok Sabha and states legislatures.
  • Article 330A and Article 332A to be introduced in the Constitution to propose changes for Lok Sabha and Assemblies respectively.
  • It can be implemented only after a delimitation exercise is completed, and the next delimitation exercise is scheduled to be held in 2026. 
  • Effectively, this means that the earliest implementation of the women’s quota in the Lok Sabha can be in the 2029 general election.
  • Seats reserved for women will be rotated after each delimitation, as determined by a law made by Parliament.
  • The Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation (2nd Amendment) Act 2023 – It seeks to reserve one-third of all elected seats in the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly for women.
  • The reservation for women will also apply to the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the J&K Assembly.
  • The Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Act 2023 – It reserves one third of all elected seats in the Puducherry Legislative Assembly for women.

3) Consider the following pairs with respect to Major Rock Edicts of Ashoka.

Rock Edicts                     Mentions about

  1. I                           –       Prohibition of animal slaughter
  2. II                          –       South Indian Kingdoms
  3. VII                       –       Religious tolerance
  4. XIII                      –       Kalinga War

How many of the above pairs are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Rock Edicts of Ashoka

2 Ashokan era edicts were recently found in Delhi.

  • Edicts – It is a decree or announcement of law, which can be under any official authority and can be issued in any number of physical forms
    • Major and Minor Rock Edicts
    • Major and Minor Pillar Edicts

Major Rock Edict

About

I

  • Prohibits animal slaughter
  • Bans festive gatherings

II

  • Mentions the South Indian kingdoms such as Cholas, Pandya, Satyaputas and Keralaputras

III

  • Yukatas, Pradesikas along with Rajukas shall visit all the areas of the kingdom to spread Dhamma

IV

  • Preference of Dhammaghosa (Sound of peace) over Berighosa (Sound of wandrums)

V

  • Mentions every human as the child of Ashoka
  • Humane treatment of slaves by their masters
  • Mentions about the appointment of Dhamma Mahamatras

VI

  • King’s responsibility towards the welfare of the people

VII

  • Tolerance towards all religions and sects

VIII

  • Ashoka’s 1st dhammayatra to Bodh Gaya and Bodhi tree

IX

  • Stresses on the moral conduct of people
  • Condemns expensive ceremonies

X

  • Condemns the desire for fame and glory

XI

  • Elaborate explanation of Dhamma

XII

  • Appeal for developing tolerance towards all religious sects

XIII

  • About Kalinga war and conquest through dhamma

XIV

  • Purpose of engraving inscriptions in various parts of the country

4) Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas built in the 12th to 13th centuries have been inscribed in the UNESCO's World Heritage List.  Which of the following temples form a part of this Hoysala-style temple complex?

Kesava Temple

Virupaksha temple

Hoysaleswara temple

Amruteshwara temple

Chennakeshava temple

Select the answer using the code given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Sacred Ensembles of Hoysalas (Karnataka)

Sacred Ensembles of HoysalaRecently, Hoysala-era temples were added as to UNESCO’s World Heritage List thus becoming the 42nd site from India.

  • The Chennakeshava temple – It is located in Belur.
  • Major shrine of– Lord Vishnu
  • Time period – Consecrated around 1117 AD
  • Built by – Hoysala king Vishnuvardhana
  • Nickname Vijaya Narayana temple as it was built by the king to mark his victories against the Cholas.
  • The Kesava Temple – It is located in Somanathapura (Mysore).

Kesava TempleTime period – 1268 C.E

  • Built by – Somanatha, a General of Hoysala King Narasimha III
  • Major Shrine - Vaishnava shrine
  • The Hoysaleswara temple – It is located on the banks of Dwarasamudra tank in Halebidu.

Hoysaleshwara templeTime period – 12th Century C.E.

  • Major Shrine – Lord Shiva
  • It is believed to be the largest Shiva temple built by the Hoysalas.
  • Halebidu was sacked by Malik Kafur, a general of the then Delhi Sultan Alauddin Khalji in the early 1300s.

5) With respect to the special session of the Parliament, which one of following is/are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Special Session of Parliament

A special session of Parliament was held in September 2023.

  • Constitution of India does not use the term “special session”.
  • Article 352 – It refer to a “special sitting of the House” to deal with proclamation of emergency.
  • This part was added to the article during 44th Amendment Act to add safeguards to the power of proclaiming emergency in the country.
  • If a Proclamation of Emergency is issued and Parliament is not in session, then one-tenth of Lok Sabha MPs can ask the President to convene a special meeting to disapprove the Emergency.
  • Agenda – Either to celebrate a historical legacy like the Indian freedom struggle and Indian Independence or to pass a bill.
  • Summon – The President, who summons a regular Parliamentary session will summon this session also as per provisions of Article 85(1) of the Constitution.
  • Chair – For the 2 Houses to be in session, the Presiding Officers should chair their proceedings.
  • The presiding officers can also direct that the proceedings of their respective Houses would be limited.
  • The procedural devices like question hour would not be available to MPs during the session.
  • 2 divisions of the special sessions
    • Proper special sessions – It happens with debates or discussions, and
    • Midnight sessions – It happens without any debates.
  • Special sitting in Lok Sabha – In 2012, to commemorate the 60th anniversary of the 1st sitting of the Indian Parliament.
  • Special session of ParliamentSpecial sitting in Rajya Sabha – In 1977 and 1991 when the Lok Sabha was under dissolution to decide on the President’s Rule.

6) Consider the following with respect to Abraham Accords.

  1. It aims to normalise ties between the Arab states and Palestine.
  2. Signatories include Egypt, Jordan, UAE, Morocco, Sudan and Saudi Arabia.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Abraham Accords

September 2023 marks an important milestone for West Asia and North Africa, 3 years since the signing of the Abraham Accords.

  • Abraham AccordsSigned in - 2020
  • Agreement between - United Arab Emirates, Bahrain and Israel.
  • Mediated by – The US
  • Objective- To normalise ties between these Arab states and Israel.
  • Following the signing of the Abraham Accords in 2020, Arab states including Egypt, Jordan, UAE, Morocco, Bahrain and Sudan have established diplomatic ties with Israel.
  • It is sometimes referred to as “the new dawn of a new Middle East”.

7) Consider the following pairs.

Contention Area                          Disputed parties

  1. Paracel Island               –       China & Philippines
  2. Spratly island                –       China & Malaysia
  3. Scarborough Shoal       –       China & Vietnam

How many of the above pairs are correct with respect South China Sea Dispute?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

South China Sea Dispute

Recently, Philippines coast guard removed the floating barrier placed by China that prevented Filipino fishing boats from entering a disputed area in South China Sea.

  • South China Sea boundaries –Brunei, China, Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Taiwan and Vietnam.
    • Taiwan Strait – Connects South China Sea with East China Sea
    • Luzon Strait – Connects South China Sea with Philippine Sea
  • Rivers draining into it – The tributaries of the Pearl (Zhu) River including the Xi River, the Red River and the Mekong River.

Contention Area

Disputed Parties

Paracel Island

China, Taiwan and Vietnam

Spratly island

China, Taiwan, Vietnam, Philippines and Malaysia

Scarborough Shoal

China and the Philippines

South China Sea

  • Senkaku or the Daioyu Islands dispute – Between China and Japan in East China Sea

8) Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Non fungible Tokens (NFTs)?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Non Fungible Tokens (NFTs)

A crypto gambling platform dappGambl, concluded that most of the researched NFT collections were worth close to nothing.

  • NFTs – They are blockchain-based tokens that each represent a unique asset like a piece of art, digital content, or media.
  • It is an irrevocable digital certificate of ownership and authenticity for a given asset, whether digital or physical.
  • Block chain is a distributed ledger where all transactions are recorded.
  • Key characteristics – They are designed to be cryptographically verifiable, unique or scarce and easily transferable.
  • Creation – It is created by an artist, creator, or license-holder through a process called minting.
  • Minting – It involves signing a blockchain transaction that outlines the fundamental token details, which is then broadcasted to the blockchain to trigger a smart contract function which creates the token and assigns it to its owner.
  • Thus a unique token identifier, or token ID is mapped to an owner identifier and stored inside a smart contract.
  • When the owner of a given token ID wishes to transfer it to another user, it is easy to verify ownership and reassign the token to a new owner.
  • It cannot be exchanged or replaced with tokens of same type as each are unique.
  • Fractional NFTs (F-NFTs) – It allows multiple people to own a piece of the same asset by dividing the NFT into smaller fractions, each of which can be purchased individually.

Non-fungible tokens

9) Air Quality Life Index, which reports about the impact of air pollution on life expectancy, is released by which one of the following?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) Report

According to the University of Chicago report, the air pollution has major impact on the life expectancy.

  • Prepared byUniversity of Chicago’s Energy Policy Institute (UCEPI)
  • Aim – To quantify the causal relationship between long-term human exposure to air pollution and life expectancy.
  • Data – It uses highly localized satellite data, making it is possible to report life expectancy impacts at the county or similar level around the world.
  • It is rooted in peer-reviewed research by an international team of scholars.
  • Findings – In 2021, the average person in the world would have gained 2 years and 3 months of life expectancy if fine particulate pollution were reduced to meet the WHO guideline.
  • The South Asian nation stands to lose 6.8 years of life on average per person.
  • The average person living in Bangladesh, India, Nepal, and Pakistan is exposed to particulate pollution levels that are 51.3% higher than at the turn of the century.
  • Bangladesh remains the most polluted country in the world.
  • Significance – It is the 1st pollution index to show what the threat of air pollution means to a person’s life anywhere in the world.
  • World Air Quality Report – by IQAir, a Swiss air quality technology company.
  • Air Quality Index – by Central Pollution Control Board

10) Consider the following statements regarding India’s Space Policy 2023.

  1. It laid down the regulations of privatizing space missions in India.
  2. As per the policy, ISRO will move out of manufacturing space systems.
  3. Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe) will handle manufacturing and operation of space systems.
  4. New Space India Limited (NSIL) will handle transfer of technology requests, in order to give private space firms access to already established ISRO-owned space infrastructure.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

India’s Space Policy 2023

  • Published by – ISRO
  • It formally laid down the regulations of privatizing space missions in India.
  • It also denoted clear guidelines of operations for New Space India Limited (NSIL) and Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe).
  • Vision – To augment space capabilities and to enable, encourage and develop a flourishing commercial presence in space
  • To use space as a driver of technology development and derived benefits in allied areas.
  • To pursue international relations, and create an ecosystem for effective implementation of space applications among all stakeholders.
  • Policy – ISRO will move out of manufacturing space systems, and instead focus only on advancing space R&D.
  • Manufacturing and operations will be handled by NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), a public sector unit set up in 2019 under the Department of Space as the commercial arm of ISRO.
  • IN-SPACe – Indian National Space Promotion & Authorisation Centre is expected to create regulatory framework to ensure a level playing field for the NGEs.
  • It will also handle transfer of technology requests, in order to give private space firms access to already established ISRO-owned space infrastructure.

11) Consider the following pairs

Statues in India                           Associated Personality

  1. Statue of Equality         –       Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  2. Statue of Oneness         –       Sri Ramanujacharya
  3. Statue of Unity              –       Sardar Vallabhai Patel
  4. Statue of Valour            –       Adi Shankaracharya

How many of the above pairs are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Statue of Oneness

Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister unveiled the 108-foot-tall Statue of Oneness of Adi Shankaracharya at Omkareshwar.

  • Statue of Oneness - Depicts Adi Shankaracharya as a 12-year-old child.
  • Location –Mandhata Parvat hill at Omkareshwar, Madhya Pradesh.
  • Adi Shankaracharya became a proponent of Advaita Vedanta at Omkareshwar.
  • Statue of Unity – It is a statue of Sardar Vallabhai Patel, the Iron Man of India.
  • It is the world’s tallest statue (182 m), located near the Sardar Sarovar Dam, in the banks of the Narmada River in Gujarat.
  • Statue of Equality – It is the statue of Sri Ramanujacharya.
  • It is the second-tallest statue in the world, located in Hyderabad in Telangana.
  • Born in 1017 in Sriperumbudur in Tamil Nadu, he is revered as a Vedic philosopher and social reformer who travelled across India, advocating equality and social justice.
  • Statue of Valour – A 125-foot bronze statue of 'Ahom general' Lachit Borphukan in Assam's Jorhat was unveiled in 2024.
  • Battle of Alaboi and Battle of Saraighat were fought between Mughalas and Ahoms.
  • Statue of Social Justice – A 206 feet statue of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar at Andhra Pradesh.
  • Statue of Equality (In USA) – A 19-feet statue of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, part of the Ambedkar International Centre (AIC) in Maryland, is the largest statue of Ambedkar outside India.

12) Which of the following best describes the term ‘Erg Chech 002’?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Erg Chech 002

In 2020, some unusual rocks containing distinctive greenish crystals were found in the Erg Chech sand sea.

  • Erg Chech – A sandy region of the Sahara in western Algeria and northern Mali.
  • It consists largely of shifting dunes.
  • The rocks containing distinctive greenish crystals, it turned out to be from outer space, left over from the dawn of the Solar System.
  • They were all pieces of a meteorite known as Erg Chech 002, which is the oldest volcanic rock ever found.
  • Erg Chech 002 – It is an ancient andesite meteorite, an “ungrouped achondrite”, which are rocks formed from melted planetesimals, which is what we call solid lumps in the cloud of gas and debris that formed the Solar System.
    • Ex – Angrites, Erg Chech 002.
  • It contains abundant lead-206 and lead-207, as well as undecayed uranium-238 and uranium-235.
  • Findings – It is some 4.56556 billion years old (around 120,000 years).
  • Aluminium-26 was distributed quite unevenly throughout the cloud of dust and gas which formed the solar system.
  • Conocarpus – It is a fast-growing exotic mangrove species.
  • Proxima Centauri – A red dwarf star, nearest to the Sun.

13) Consider the following statements.

  1. Warm surface temperatures over the Antarctic
  2. Cold surface temperatures over Eurasia

Which of the above statement(s) characterises the WACE Pattern?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

 Warm Arctic Cold Eurasian (WACE) pattern

Together with rapid Arctic warming and sea ice decline, especially over the Barents–Kara seas, extreme cold winters have occurred frequently in mid-latitudes, particularly in Central Eurasia.

  • It is a pattern with 2 distinct winter temperature anomalies centered over the Barents–Kara seas and Central Eurasia.
  • 2 distinct winter temperature anomalies
    • Warm surface temperatures over the Arctic
    • Cold surface temperatures over Eurasia
  • It is accompanied by an anomalous high pressure and anticyclonic circulation over the Eurasian continent.
  • The sea ice loss in the Barents and Kara seas and the cooling of the Eurasian continent can both be traced to anomalous atmospheric circulations.
  • Impact in Indian Ocean – It is also associated with upper air circulation changes that reach into the Indian Ocean sector.
  • The rapid increase in the cyclogenesis potential over the Arabian Sea coincides with a shift in the WACE pattern.

 Warm Arctic Cold Eurasian (WACE) pattern

14) Consider the following.

  1. Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA)
  2. Simple Versatile Affordable GRIHA (SVA GRIHA)
  3. Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC)
  4. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED)

Which of the above building rating systems has been developed by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

GRIHA Norms

The Indian Army’s new Thal Sena Bhawan (TSB), coming up with GRIHA-IV (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) norms.

  • Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) - A national rating system that evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle.
  • Developed by TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute) and has been adopted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
  • 3 stages for Evaluation – Pre-construction stage, building planning & construction stages and building operation & maintenance stage.
  • Assessment – Based on 34 criteria and awards points on a scale of 100.
  • Eligibility – A project must achieve at least 50 points to get minimum of 1 star.
  • The criteria and appraisal norms is revised every 3 years or sooner.
  • SVA GRIHA (Simple Versatile Affordable GRIHA) – It has been developed by ADaRSH in collaboration with TERI and is currently under pilot stage.
  • It is meant to simplify, and make the greening of small buildings (less than 2500 sqm built-up area) affordable.
  • Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) – Initiated by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in 2007 and updated in 2017, sets minimum energy standards for commercial buildings.
  • Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED) - An environmentally oriented building certification program run by the U.S. Green Building Council (USGBC).
  • It aims to improve building and construction project performance across 7 areas of environmental and human health.

15) Which of the following best describes the aim of Beijing convention?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Beijing convention on the judicial sale of ships

15 countries join the Beijing convention on the judicial sale of ships.

  • It is a UN convention to promote legal certainty in judicial sale of ships.
  • Developed by – United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL).
  • Aim - It addresses the problem of new owners and those financing the purchase of vessels who, for instance, find themselves dealing with previous creditors laying claim to the ship as security for a loan.
  • International Maritime Organisation (IMO) was supporting the establishment of the convention by acting as the repository for these notices and certificates of judicial sale.
  • Information on pending and completed judicial sales of ships will be accessible online on IMO’s Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GISIS) platform.
  • Parties – As of now, 15 States signed, but not signed by India yet.
  • UNCITRAL – It is a subsidiary body of the U.N. General Assembly responsible for helping to facilitate international trade and investment.
  • Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action (BPfA) – It is one of the key guiding documents on gender equality and women's empowerment.
  • It was adopted at the 4th World Conference on Women in 1995.

16) Consider the following statements.

  1. Bengaluru is called as the Coffee capital of India.
  2. India is a member of International Coffee Organisation.
  3. The Coffee Board of India is managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  4. India hosted the 2023 edition of World Coffee Conference for the first time.

How many of the above statement (s) is/ are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

World Coffee Conference (WCC 2023)

The 5th edition of the World Coffee Conference held in Bengaluru.

  • WCC – It is a property of the London-based International Coffee Organization (ICO), a body set up in 1963 under the auspices of the UN.
  • 5th WCC in Bengaluru – It is the 1st time India is hosting the conference.
  • Organized by – The Coffee Board (Ministry of Commerce and Industry) and International Coffee Organization.
  • Theme – Sustainability through circular economy and regenerative agriculture.
  • Bengaluru is the coffee capital of India, accounting for over 70% of the country’s total coffee production.
  • International Coffee Organization (IOC) – An intergovernmental organization bringing together exporting and importing Governments to tackle the challenges in the coffee sector.
  • Members – They represent 98% of world coffee production and 67% of world consumption and India is one among them.

17) Which Article of the Indian Constitution was adopted as a part of the Munshi-Ayyangar formula?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Munshi-Ayyangar formula

  • The Munshi-Ayyangar formula is named after Drafting Committee members K M Munshi and N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar.
  • The Munshi-Ayyangar Formula was proposed in 1950, which recommended Hindi in Devanagari Script to be the Official Language in India along with English for a period of 15 years.
  • As part of the Munshi-Ayyangar formula, Article 343 of the Constitution was adopted in 1950.
  • September 14 is observed as Hindi Diwas or Hindi Day, to commemorate the Constituent Assembly of India making Hindi the official language of the Union government.
  • Article 343
    1. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.
    2. The form of numerals to be used for the official purposes of the Union shall be the international form of Indian numerals.
    3. For a period of 15 years from the commencement of this Constitution, the English language shall continue to be used for all the official purposes of the Union.
  • When the 15-year period came to an end, protests broke out over the fear of imposition of Hindi in large parts of non-Hindi-speaking India.
  • The resistance resulted in the Centre passing the Official Languages Act, which stated that English would continue to be upheld as an official language along with Hindi.
  • Hence there is no national language for India.

18) Consider the following statements with respect to UPAg Portal.

  1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
  2. It is a crucial component of the Digital Public Infrastructure for Agriculture.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

UPAg (Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics (UPAg)) Portal

  •  UPAg Portal aims to address the complex governance challenges India’s farm sector is facing now.
  • It is a platform designed to generate crop estimates and is integrated with other systems generating agriculture statistics such as price, trade, procurement, stock.
  • It is a crucial component of the Digital Public Infrastructure for Agriculture.
  • It is an initiative of the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture.
  • It aids to streamline and enhance data management in the agricultural domain.
  • Key Features
  • Data Standardization – It consolidates data from various sources into a standardized format for easier access and understanding.
  • Data Analysis – It offers insights such as production trends and consumption patterns for making informed decisions.
  • Granular Production Estimates – It improves the government's ability to respond to agricultural crises swiftly.
  • Commodity Profile Reports – The reports will be produced using algorithms, and provides users with comprehensive insights.
  • Plug and Play – Users will have the flexibility to use the portal's data to prepare their own reports, promoting data-driven decision-making.

19) Consider the following statements with respect to Mithun.

  1. It is endemic to India.
  2. It is the State animal of Manipur.
  3. It is the only animal that has been bestowed with the food animal tag by the FSSAI.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Mithuns (Bos frontalis)

  • Scientific name - Bos frontalis. Family – Bovidae.
  • It is a ruminant (large group of herbivores with a 4-chambered stomach) species that is found in India (Northeast India), Bangladesh Myanmar, and China.
  • It is the State animal of Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.
  • Habitat – The mithun is semi-domesticated and is reared in a free-range forest ecosystem.
  • Since the soil in these parts is acidic and low in salt content, mithuns have an affinity for salt.
  • Food Animal Tag - Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) recognized this bovine as a ‘food animal’.
  • Food animals are those that are raised and used for food production or consumption by humans.
  • The recognition aids to help farmers and tribal village communities benefit commercially from the sale and processing of mithun meat.
  • Other animals having food animal tag – Himalayan yak.

20) Psyche Mission, sometimes seen in the news is associated with?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Psyche Mission

  • Launched by - NASA in 2023
  • Aim – To study the metallic asteroid called ‘16 Psyche’, located in the main asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
  • Type- Orbiter
  • Mission – By 2029, the spacecraft will begin exploring the asteroid and will spend about 2 years orbiting the asteroid.
  • It will take pictures, map the surface, and collect data to determine Psyche’s composition.
  • It uses solar electric propulsion and communicates with Earth through the Deep Space Network (DSN) of NASA.
  • Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (JUICE) - European Space Agency’s (ESA) mission to explore Jupiter and three of its moons - Ganymede, Callisto and Europa.
Download PDF