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CA Revision Module - Test 2 (January 2023)

1) Consider the following statements with respect to Schengen Zone

  1. It was signed in 1985 in response to the exigencies of the developing Cold War.
  2. Both EU and non-EU countries can become members of Schengen Zone.
  3. United Kingdom is a non-EU and non-Schengen Country.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Schengen Area

In January 2023, Croatia joins the Europe's Schengen Area, a zone with no internal border controls, including passport checks.

  • Schengen agreement – A treaty, signed in 1985 in Schengen, by France, Germany, Belgium, Luxembourg and Netherlands and came into force in 1995.
  • Schengen is a village in Luxembourg, bordering France and Germany.
  • Aim – To abolish internal border checks and to provide a single set of rules for controls at the external borders in Schengen area.
  • Membership – It has allowed both EU and non-EU countries.
  • 23 of 27 EU countries are parties except Cyprus, Ireland, Romania and Bulgaria.
  • Non-EU States like Iceland, Norway, Switzerland and Liechtenstein are members of Schengen zone.
  • United Kingdom (UK) is a non-EU and non-Schengen Country.

Schengen area

Schengen Visa 

  • It is issued for short stays under 90 days.
  • Benefits – Freedom to travel to other European nations without border checks.
  • In March, 2024, Kosovo secured visa-free access to the Schengen zone in Europe.

2. Which of the following is/are the criterion followed for specification of a community as scheduled tribe?

  1. Distinctive culture
  2. Geographical isolation
  3. A declining or stagnant population
  4. Pre-agricultural level of technology

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Scheduled Tribes in India

  • The term 'Scheduled Tribes' first appeared in Article 366 of the Constitution of India.
  • The criterion followed for specification of a community, as scheduled tribes are:
  • Indications of primitive traits
  • Distinctive culture
  • Geographical isolation
  • Shyness of contact with the community at large, and
  • Backwardness.
  • This criterion is not spelt out in the Constitution but has become well established by the Lokur Committee in 1965. 

Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)

  • The central government has recognized 75 tribal communities as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) based on the recommendations of the Dhebar Commission.
  • The criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups are:
  1. Pre-agricultural level of technology
  2. Low level of literacy
  3. Economic backwardness
  4. A declining or stagnant population

3. Consider the following statements with respect to Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

  1. It contains provisions pertaining to the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  2. Tribal advisory councils (TACs) are formed under this Schedule to deal with welfare and advancement of scheduled tribes.
  3. Under this schedule, the President is empowered to reorganize boundaries of the tribal areas.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution

  • According to Article 244 of the Indian Constitution, the Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  • Passed by the Constituent Assembly in 1949, it seeks to safeguard the rights of tribal population through the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADC) and Regional Councils.
  • Each autonomous district and regional council consist of not more than 30 members, of which 4 are nominated by the governor and the rest via elections.
  • All of them remain in power for a term of 5 years. The Bodoland Territorial Council, however, is an exception.
  • Fifth Schedule provides for establishment of a Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) in any State having Scheduled Areas.
  • The Governors of these states are empowered to reorganize boundaries of the tribal areas.
  • Acts passed by Parliament and state legislatures may or may not be levied in these regions unless the President and the governor gives approval, with or without modifications in the laws.
  • The ADCs are empowered with civil and judicial powers, can constitute village courts within their jurisdiction to hear trial of cases involving the tribes. 

4. Consider the following statements regarding Stockholm Conference:

Statement-I: Also known as the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), the Stockholm Conference on environmental issues was held in 1992.

Statement-II: One of the major results of the Stockholm conference was the creation of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Stockholm Conference, 1972

  • United Nations Conference on the Human Environment or the Stockholm Conference was held in Stockholm, Sweden in 1972.
  • It was the first United Nations conference that focused on international environmental issues.
  • The participants adopted a series of principles for sound management of the environment including the Stockholm Declaration and Action Plan for the Human Environment.
  • One of the major results of the Stockholm conference was the creation of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

Rio Conference (Earth Summit), 1992

  • United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Rio Conference or the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro, 1992.
  • It was at this Summit where the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) were opened for signature, while the negotiation of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) was called for in the Summit outcome - Agenda 21.
  • This is why these three sister conventions later collectively became known as "the Rio Conventions".

5. “Senna spectabilis”, sometimes seen in the news recently, refers to?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a
  • Senna spectabilis (calceolaria shower) is an invasive plant species known for its prolific seed production and rapid growth that displaces the native plant species.
  • Gambusia fish is an insectivorous fish that is found mostly in fresh and brackish, and occasionally marine waters and has a high breeding capacity.
  • Axolotls are paedomorphic or neotenic aquatic salamanders that has the ability to retain juvenile or larval traits.
  • Candida auris is an emerging multidrug-resistant fungus causing life-threatening outbreaks.

6. Consider the following statements with respect to Article 19 of the Indian Constitution

  1. It can be enforced only against the State and not against any private individuals.
  2. Suspension of this right is permissible only during war or external aggression.  

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Ambit of Article 19

The Supreme Court in its judgment said that the fundamental rights under Article 19 & 21 of the Constitution can be enforced against private individuals & entities.

  • Article 19 – It guarantees freedom of speech and expression is a right generally invoked against the state.
  • Article 19 can be suspended only when emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (i.e., external emergency) and not on the ground of armed rebellion (i.e., internal emergency).

ARTICLE 19

RIGHTS

RESTRICTIONS

  • Article 19 provides for the right to
  1. Freedom of speech and expression
  2. Assemble peaceably and without arms
  3. Form associations or unions
  4. Move freely throughout the territory of India
  5. Reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
  6. Practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
  • These rights are not absolute and the reasonable restrictions includes
  1. Sovereignty and integrity of India
  2. Security of the state
  3. Friendly relations with foreign states
  4. Public order
  5. Decency or morality
  6. Contempt of court, defamation
  7. Incitement to an offence

7) Consider the following statements with respect to Seismic Zone map of India

  1. Seismic Zonation map of India is published by the National Centre for Seismology under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
  2. India is classified into five seismic zones with Zone V being the most active region.
  3. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the nodal agency for monitoring earthquakes in and around the country.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Seismic Zone Map

The crisis in Joshimath, Uttarakhand, where numerous houses exhibit significant or minor cracks, underscores the critical significance of seismic zone mapping in India.

  • A seismic zone is an area where there is a high probability of earthquakes due to the area’s geology.
  • Seismic zonation involves dividing areas based on expected ground motion.
  • It assesses the hazards related to earthquakes in such areas to provide inputs for safer constructions and other practices.
  • The first national seismic zoning map of India was compiled by the Geological Survey of India in 1935.
  • Seismic Zonation map of India was given by Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).
  • It categorised India into four seismic zones from Zone II to Zone V, with zone V being the most vulnerable and seismically active region.
  • National Centre for Seismology (NCS) under Ministry of Earth Sciences is the nodal agency for monitoring earthquakes in and around the country. 
  • According to the Journal of the International Society for the Prevention and Mitigation of Natural Hazards, almost 65% of India falls in high to very high seismic zones.

Seismic zone map

8) Consider the following pairs:

        Animal Sports                        States                                  

  1. Kambala                 –          Karnataka
  2. Bulbul Fight            –          Rajasthan     
  3. Dhirio Bull Fight      –         Tamil Nadu

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Animal Sports

States

Jallikattu

Tamil Nadu

Rekla

Tamil Nadu

Bail Gadi Shariat

Maharashtra

Kambala

Karnataka

Maramadi Bull Surfing

Kerala

Dhirio bull fight

Goa

Buffalo fight during Bhogali Bihu

Assam

Camel racing

Rajasthan

Bulbul fight

Assam

Cock fighting

Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Jharkhand

9. Which of the following countries is/are member(s) of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC)

  1. India
  2. Israel
  3. Russia
  4. USA

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC)

  • It is formerly the Organisation of the Islamic Conference.
  • Established in - 1969
  • Headquarters - Jeddah, Saudi Arabia
  • Aim - To strengthen cooperation and solidarity between the Member States, to protect the rights and interests of the Islamic World.
  • Membership - 57 states (Syria’s membership suspended in 2012)
  • Members includes Palestine, Afghanistan, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Saudi Arabia, etc.
  • India is home to the world's 3rd largest Muslim population, next only to Indonesia and Pakistan. Yet, India is not a member of the OIC.
  • Non-members includes United States of America and Israel.
  • Russia is one of the five observer country in OIC.

10. Which of the following best describes the term “Girmitya”?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Girmityas or Jahajis

  • They are indentured labourers from British India transported to work on plantations in other countries.
  • Girmitya countries – The countries where these indentured Indian labourers were settled.
  • It includes Fiji, Mauritius, South Africa, East Africa, the Malay Peninsula, Caribbean and South America (Trinidad and Tobago, Guyana and Suriname).
  • Girmitya – It was coined by Mahatma Gandhi who referred to himself as 1st Girmitya.

11. How First Information Report (FIR) differ from Chargesheet?

  1. FIR is a preliminary report whereas Chargesheet is a final report.
  2. FIR can be prepared only in the case of cognizable offences, whereas Chargesheet can be filed for non-cognizable offences as well.
  3. Chargesheet is a public document, whereas FIR is not publicly accessible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Charge Sheet and FIR (First Information Report)

The Supreme Court upheld that the chargesheets are not ‘public documents’ and denied their free public access.

 

First Information Report (FIR)

Charge Sheet

It is a preliminary report recorded by an on-duty officer from an aggrieved person either in writing or made orally.

It is a final report of an investigation officer

It is filed in Police Station

It is filed in Courts

It is a public document

It is not a public document

A FIR is prepared only in the case of cognizable offences, and hence there is no FIR prepared for a non-cognizable offence.

Unless, the Police Officer is permitted by an order of the jurisdictional Magistrate to investigate the non- cognizable offence, the Police Officer does not get jurisdiction to investigate the matter and file a final report or the charge sheet.

12) Etalin Hydroelectric Power Project, sometimes seen in the news, is located in?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Etalin Hydroelectric Power Project

The Etalin hydroelectric power project in Arunachal Pradesh has been scrapped in its present form and the Forest Advisory Committee have asked Arunachal Pradesh to review it.

  • The Etalin Hydroelectric Project (EHEP) is a joint venture of the Jindal Power Limited and the Hydropower Development Corporation of Arunachal Pradesh.
  • It is located in Etalin village in the Dibang Valley district of Arunachal Pradesh.
  • The project is a combination of two run-of-the-river schemes and involves the construction of concrete gravity dams on the Tangon and Dri rivers.
  • Major tributaries of Dibang River includes Dri, Mathun and Talon.
  • River Dibang is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River which flows through the states of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
  • The Idu Mishmi, an animist tribe in the Dibang valley, will be directly affected by this Hydroelectric Power Project.

Etalin Hydroelectric power project

13) Project-75(I), sometimes seen in the news, is associated with?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Project 75 (India)

  • Project 75 – India signed Project 75 to construct 6 Scorpene class submarines over 30 years with technology transfer from France.
  • Project 75I – It is a follow-up to Project 75 and improves upon the design and technology of its predecessor.
  • It aims to procure diesel-electric attack submarines with fuel cells and Air-Independent Propulsion System (AIP) for the Indian Navy.

Project 75 vs Project 75-I

  • The conventional diesel-electric submarines such as the Scorpene, under Project 75, come with improved stealth features such as advanced acoustic absorption techniques, low radiated noise levels, long-range guided torpedoes, tube-launched anti-ship missiles, sonars and sensor suites.
  • However, as electrical batteries power them, they need to surface every 48 hours to be recharged.
  • The AIP technology in Project 75I allows the submarines to stay submerged for up to two weeks.
  • These submarines may even be larger in size compared to the ones under Project 75.

14. Consider the following statements with respect to the World Social Report, 2023

  1. It is published by the International Labour Organization (ILO).
  2. The theme of the report is ‘Leaving No One Behind in an Aging World’.
  3. Madrid International Plan of Action is related to the Ageing.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

The World Social Report, 2023

  • The World Social Report 2023 explores the economic and social implications of the ageing of the human population.
  • The report is published by the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA).
  • Theme of the report - Leaving No One Behind in an Aging World.
  • Ageing refers to the process by which the proportion of older individuals in a society increases over time.
  • By 2050, the number of persons aged 65 years or older is expected to double, surpassing 1.6 billion accounting for more than 16% of the global population.

Madrid International Plan of Action (MIPAA), 2002

  • It is a comprehensive list of commitments for United Nations Member States.
  • It focuses on three priority directions
    • Older persons and development
    • Advancing health and well-being into old age and
    • Ensuring enabling and supportive environments.

15. They are nomadic tribes living in the high-altitude plains of eastern Ladakh. They rear pashmina goats from which they get wool for making the world-famous Pashmina wool.

Identify the tribe mentioned in the above passage.

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Pashmina Shawls

  • Pashmina comes from an animal fibre Cashmere, derived from the Changthangi goat of Ladakh.
  • Changthang is the land of the nomads, located east of Leh, about 14600 m above sea level and winter temperature can drop to −40 degree Celsius.
  • Changpa, a nomadic tribe, who rear changthangi goats in harsh climates.
  • From the goats, they get the wool for making the world-famous Pashmina wool.
  • Pashmina shawls are GI tagged for the region of Jammu & Kashmir.

16. Consider the following statements with respect to Voice of Global South Summit, 2023

  1. South Africa hosted the first edition of Voice of Global South Summit.
  2. The theme for the event is “Unity of voice, Unity of purpose”.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Voice of Global South Summit

India hosted the virtual conference of the 1st ever Voice of Global South Summit.

  • Theme - ‘Unity of Voice, Unity of Purpose’
  • It envisages bringing together countries of the Global South to share their perspectives and priorities on a common platform.
  • A total of 125 nations took part in the digital conference.
  • Indian Prime Minister also announced five new initiatives by India in the summit
    1. Arogya Maitri (Wellness Friendship)
    2. Global South Center of Excellence
    3. Global South Science and Technology Initiative
    4. Global South Young Diplomats Forum
    5. Global South Scholarships

17. Which of the following countries is/are part of either Golden Triangle or Golden Crescent?

  1. Pakistan
  2. Thailand
  3. Laos
  4. Vietnam

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

Golden Crescent

  • The Golden Crescent and the Golden Triangle are distinct geographical confluences in Asia that allow drug cartels to smuggle their merchandise across borders due to the favourable geography.
  • The Golden Crescent is an Opium Producing Region in Asia, comprising Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan.
  • The Golden Triangle, lies to India’s east, encompassing the intersection between Burma, Thailand, Vietnam and Laos.

Golden Crescent

18. Consider the following pairs:

        Rivers                                   Flowing States

  1. Siyom                      –          Assam
  2. Bharathpuzha          –          Kerala
  3. Umkar                      –          Meghalaya

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b
  • The Kole Wetlands – It is a Ramsar site and an Important Bird Area, spread between the banks of Chalakudy River in the south and Bharathapuzha River in the north in Kerala.
  • A farmer from War tribe (sub-tribe of Khasi) in Meghalaya created a Living root bridge – It was created over Umkar River near Cherrapunjee in the state of Meghalaya.
  • Siyom Bridge – It is a strategically important bridge over the Siyom River in Arunachal Pradesh constructed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO).

19. Munroe Thuruthu Island is slowly subsiding under water. The island is located in?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Munroe Thuruthu

  • It is a string of 8 islets at the confluence of the Ashtamudi Lake and the Kallada River.
  • It is located in Kollam district, Kerala.
  • It was named after Colonel John Munroe, the British Resident of erstwhile Travancore State.
  • It is slowly going under water, and its fleeing residents join the swelling ranks of climate refugees.

20. Consider the following statements with respect toTrans-fats.

  1. Trans-fats are a form of unsaturated fat occurs in both natural and artificial forms.
  2. It is commonly found in packaged foods to increase the shelf life of food items.
  3. World Health Organization called for the global elimination of industrially produced trans-fat by 2030.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Transfat

A new status report from the World Health Organisation (WHO) has found that 5 billion people globally remain unprotected from harmful trans-fat.

  • Trans-fats or trans-fatty acids (TFA), are a form of unsaturated fat.
  • TFA occurs in both natural and artificial forms.
  • Naturally-occurring trans-fat come from ruminants (cows and sheep).
  • Industrially produced trans-fat (also called industrially produced trans-fatty acids) by hydrogenation of vegetable oils to make them more solid.
  • It is commonly found in packaged foods, baked goods, cooking oils and spreads.
  • It is done to increase shelf life of food items and for use as an adulterant as they are cheap.
  • Health Impacts - Increases the risk of heart disease and death.
  • Trans-fats are responsible for up to 500 000 premature deaths from coronary heart disease each year globally.
  • WHO on TFA - In 2018, WHO called for the global elimination of industrially produced trans-fat by 2023.
  • WHO established specific criteria to follow ‘Best-practices’ in trans-fat elimination policies and limit industrially produced trans-fat in all settings.
  • There are 2 best-practice policy alternatives:
    1. Mandatory national limit of 2 grams of industrially produced trans-fat per 100 grams of total fat in all foods.
    2. Mandatory national ban on the production or use of partially hydrogenated oils (a major source of trans-fat) as an ingredient in all foods.
  • India is among the top implementers in the middle-income countries category.
  • India and TFA - Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) monitors Trans Fatty Acids (TFAs) in food products.
  • FSSAI has capped the amount of TFA in food products to 2% from 2022.
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