1) Who among the following acts as the “Residual Legatee” at the Central level?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
It deals with all such subjects that are not allotted to any ministry/department.
The Residual Legatee, at the central level is performed by the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister who is the administrative head of the PM office (PMO).
The Chief Secretary is the Residual Legatee at the state level, while the Cabinet Secretary does not perform this legal function at the Centre.
2) In India, the Ministries/Departments of the Government are created by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister under which of the following provisions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 are made by the President of India under Article 77 of the Indian Constitution for the allocation of business of the Government of India.
The Ministries/Departments of the Government are created by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister under these Rules.
3) Consider the following statements with respective to Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Rules 2020
Under the Rules, an application to declare gender is to be made to the District Magistrate.
Under the rules transgender persons needs to go through a medical examination for declaring their desired sex.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : a
Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Rules 2020
In India, the rights of transgender persons are governed by the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 and the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Rules, 2020.
Under the Rules, an application to declare gender is to be made to the District Magistrate, Parents can also make an application on behalf of their child. District Magistrate will subject to the correctness of the applicant‘s particulars, get the application processed based on the affidavit submitted declaring the gender identity of any person, without any medical or physical examination.
4) Consider the following statements with respective to Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council
The members of the council are elected and have executive powers over the allotment, use and occupation of land vested in them by the Centre.
The AHDCs have the powers to collect some local taxes, such as parking fees, taxes on shops etc.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council
The Sixth Schedule is a provision of Article 224(A) of the Constitution, originally meant for the creation of autonomous tribal regions in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura.
The Hill councils under Article 224(A) provision have legislative powers.
Leh and Kargil have separate Autonomous Hill Development Councils, set up under the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Councils Act, 1997, however this AHDC have no legislative powers
5) Consider the following statements with respective to Independent Directors
Independent directors can be appointed only through a special resolution passed by shareholders.
A listed company will be required to disclose the resignation letter of an independent director.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
Independent Directors
SEBI has approved stricter norms related to appointment of independent directors.
For appointment of Independent Directors a special resolution requires 75% of votes in favour to be passed.
The Companies Act, 2013 has mandated all listed public companies to have at least onethird of the total Directors to be independent.
6) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to Dying Declaration
Supreme Court noted that dying declaration made through signs, gestures or by nods are admissible as evidence.
A dying declaration cannot be relied upon as the solitary piece of evidence unless recorded by a Judicial or Executive Magistrate.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
Dying Declaration
The Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with cases in which statement of relevant fact is made by a person who is dead or cannot be found.
The general rule under Section 60 of the Act is that all oral evidence must be direct i.e. he heard it, saw it or perceived it.
Dying declarations can be recorded by
Anyone can record the dying declaration of the deceased as per law.
The law does not compulsorily require the presence of a Judicial or Executive Magistrate to record a dying declaration.
A dying declaration cannot be relied upon as the solitary piece of evidence unless recorded by a Judicial or Executive Magistrate.
A dying declaration recorded by a Judicial or Executive Magistrate will muster additional strength to the prosecution case though.
A dying declaration may in several cases be the primary piece of evidence to prove the genesis of occurrence.
The person who records the dying declaration must be satisfied that the victim is in a fit state of mind
7) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect with respect to Right to be Forgotten
It has been recognised as a statutory right in the European Union under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR).
In India Information Technology Act, 2000 specifically provides for the right to be forgotten.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
Right to be Forgotten
It is the right to have publicly available personal information removed from the internet, search, databases, websites or any other public platforms, once the personal information in question is no longer necessary, or relevant.
In India, there is no law that specifically provides for the right to be forgotten. However, the Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 recognised this right. Information Technology Act, 2000 provides for safeguard against certain breaches in relation to data from computer systems.
It contains provisions to prevent the unauthorized use of computers, computer systems and data stored therein. Personal Data Protection Bill introduced in Lok Sabha in 2019, aims to set out provisions meant for the protection of the personal data of individuals.
Clause 20 under Chapter V of this draft bill titled Rights of Data Principal mentions the Right to be Forgotten.
8) Which of the following provisions are covered under the Representation of People Act, 1950?
Registration of political parties
Allocation of seats in parliament and state legislatures
Preparation of electoral rolls
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
Registration of political parties is governed by the provisions of section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
A party seeking registration under the said section with the Commission has to submit an application to the Commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation as per guidelines prescribed by the Commission in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution of India and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
As per existing guidelines, the applicant association is, inter-alia, asked to publish proposed Name of party in two national daily news papers and two local daily newspapers, on two days for submitting objections, if any, with regard to the proposed registration of the party before the Commission within 30 days from such publication. Notice so published is also displayed on the website of the Commission.
The Representation of the People Act, 1950 provide the allocation of seats in, and the delimitation of constituencies for the purpose of election to, the House of the People and the Legislatures of States, the qualifications of voters at such elections, the preparation of electoral rolls, [the manner of filling seats in the Council of States to be filled by representatives of Union territories, and matters connected therewith.
9) With reference to the ‘National commission for Protection of Child Rights’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
India has ratified the rights adopted in the United Nation Convention on the Rights of the child.
The United Nation Convention on the Rights of the child has defined child as a Human being below the age of 18 yrs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
10) Consider the following statements with respect to Model Panchayat Citizens Charter
Panchayats are responsible for delivery of basic services as enshrined under article 243G of the Constitution of India.
The Charter would ensure transparent and effective delivery of public services and accountable Local Self Governments.
The charter was prepared by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj in collaboration with National Institute of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : d
A Model Panchayat Citizens Charter
The charter was prepared by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) in collaboration with National Institute of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR).
The Citizen Charter would ensure transparent and effective delivery of public services for sustainable development and enhanced citizen service experiences, deepening inclusive and accountable Local Self Governments by incorporating diverse views while designing and delivering services.
This will help in making the citizens aware of their rights on the one hand, and to make the Panchayats and their elected representatives directly accountable to the people, on the other hand.
It is expected that the Panchayats will utilise this framework to draw up a Citizens Charter and adopt it through a resolution of the Gram Sabha by 15th August, 2021.
Panchayats are responsible for delivery of basic services as enshrined under article 243G of the Constitution of India, specifically in the areas of Health & Sanitation, Education, Nutrition, Drinking Water.
11) Consider the following statements
Right to education also includes right to safe education.
“Child with disability” comes under the definition of “child belonging to disadvantaged group” in RTE act.
Education is in state list under Schedule VII.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
RTE Act - "Child belonging to disadvantaged group" means a child with disability or a child belonging to the Scheduled Caste, the Scheduled Tribe, the socially and educationally backward class or such other group having disadvantage owing to social, cultural, economical, geographical, linguistic, gender or such other factor, as may be specified by the appropriate Government, by notification;
Orissa High Court held that the "Right to education includes right to safe education".
Education is in Concurrent list under Schedule VII.
12) In the Indian Constitution, the Political Reservation has been provided for which of the following Communities?
Scheduled Castes
Women Community
Anglo-Indian Community
Scheduled Tribes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
Article 243D(2) of the constitution states that not less than one-third of the total number of seats reserved under 243D(1) shall be reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or, as the case may be, the Scheduled Tribes.
Article 243(D)(3) states that not less than one-third (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women and such seats may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a Panchayat.
Article 330(1) states that seats shall be reserved in the House of the People for the Scheduled Castes; the Scheduled Tribes except the Scheduled Tribes in the autonomous districts of Assam the Scheduled Tribes in the autonomous districts of Assam
Article 331 earlier provided for political reservation of Anglo-Indian community. 104th Constitutional Amendment Act removed this provision, ending the nomination of two Anglo-Indians to the Lower House and assemblies.
13) With respect to Model Tenancy Act, which of the following statement is incorrect?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : a
Model Tenancy Act (MTA)
The Act aims at creating a vibrant, sustainable and inclusive rental housing market in the country
It will enable creation of adequate rental housing stock for all the income groups thereby addressing the issue of homelessness.
It will enable institutionalisation of rental housing by gradually shifting it towards the formal market.
Under the act, separate rent authorities, courts and tribunals will be set up in every districts to protect the interest of both the owner and tenant.
States and Union territories can adopt the Model Tenancy Act by enacting fresh legislation or they can amend their existing rental laws suitably.
The MTA will be applicable prospectively and will not affect the existing tenancies.
Under the Act, written agreement is a must for all new tenancies. The agreement will have to be submitted to the concerned district 'Rent Authority'.
Rent and duration of tenancy will be fixed by mutual consent between owner and tenant through a written agreement. No landlord or property manager can withhold any essential supply to the premises occupied by the tenant.
Tenant will not be evicted during the continuance of tenancy agreement unless otherwise agreed to in writing by both the parties.
Maximum limit for security deposit
Residential premises: Maximum two months' rent
Commercial property: Maximum six months' rent
14) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is applicable to which of the following communities?
Buddhist
Jain
Sikh
Parsi or Jews
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : b
The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to:
Any person who is a Hindu by religion in any of its forms or developments, including a Virashaiva, a Lingayat or a follower of the Brahmo, Prarthana or Arya Samaj;
Any person who is a Buddhist, Jain or Sikh by religion; and 3. Any other person domiciled in the territories to which this Act extends who is not a Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew by religion, unless it is proved that any such person would not have been governed by the Hindu law or by any custom or usage as part of that law in respect of any of the matters dealt with herein if this Act had not been passed.
15) Consider the following statements with respect to allotment of symbols to political parties in India
A party/candidate has to provide a list of three symbols from the Election Commission’s free symbols list at the time of filing nomination papers.
Any choice other than from the Election Commission's list will be summarily rejected.
Two or more recognised political parties can have the same symbol provided they are not contenders in the same State or Union Territory.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : d
As per Election Symbols (Reservation & Allotment) (Amendment) Order, 2017, party symbols are either reserved or free.
A party/candidate has to provide a list of three symbols from the Election Commission’s free symbols list at the time of filing nomination papers. Any choice other than from the Election Commission's list will be summarily rejected.
The Election Commission has a pool of around 200 free symbols that are allocated to thousands of non-recognized regional parties before the election.
Two or more recognised political parties can have the same symbol provided they are not contenders in the same State or Union Territory. When a recognised political party splits, the Election Commission takes the decision on assigning the symbol.
16) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to Article 311
Under the article, no civil servant can be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry.
Under the article, the safeguard of an inquiry provided to a Civil servant does not apply in cases of conviction on a criminal charge.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
Article 311
Article 311 of the Constitution deals with Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State.
Under the article no civil servant can be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges.
The safeguard of an inquiry also does not apply where the authority is satisfied that for some reason, to be recorded by that authority in writing, it is not reasonably practicable to hold such inquiry. It also shall not apply where the President or the Governor, as the case may be, is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State it is not expedient to hold such inquiry. Only available remedy to terminated employees under this article is to challenge the government‘s decision in the High Court.
17) Consider the following statements with respective to Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021
The Bill empowers District Magistrate and Additional District Magistrate to issue adoption orders.
The Bill made that an offence which is punishable with imprisonment between three to seven years will be noncognizable.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : c
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021
Juvenile Justice Act 2015 replaced the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act with more universally accessible adoption law.
The Act made the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) the statutory body for adoption-related matters.
Recently, the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021, was passed in the Rajya Sabha.
The present Act provides that an offence which is punishable with imprisonment between three to seven years to be cognizable (where arrest is allowed without warrant) and nonbailable.
The Bill amends this to provide that such offences will be non-cognizable.
Presently, the adoption order issued by the court establishes that the child belongs to the adoptive parents.
The Bill provides that instead of the court, the District Magistrate (including Additional District Magistrate) will issue such adoption orders.
18) Consider the following statements with respective to Consumer Protection (ECommerce) Rules, 2020
In India e-commerce entities are registered separately with Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
Chief compliance officer has discretionary powers to ban fraudulent flash sales by e-commerce entities.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : d
Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020
The e-commerce entities are registered under the Companies Act, Indian Partnership Act or Limited Liability Partnership Act and not separately with DPIIT.
The new draft on Consumer Protection (ECommerce) Rules proposed the appointment of chief compliance officer and resident grievance officer.
The government has proposed a ban on misselling of goods and services offered on such platforms.
19) Which of the following is the nodal ministry for Drug Demand Reduction in India?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : d
The Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment is the nodal ministry for Drug Demand Reduction.
It implements various programs for the drug abuse prevention across the country.
It has also prepared a National Action Plan for Drug Demand Reduction (NAPDDR) for 2018-2023.
There are more than 500 voluntary organizations across the country, which are assisted financially under the NAPDDR scheme of the Ministry.
These NGOs have been actively involved in the implementation of drug-free India campaign
20) Consider the following statements with respect to National Building Code of India
It has been published by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).
The code will not be applicable to the Union territory of Lakshadweep and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
Under the Code, Hospitals are classified under the hazardous category.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer : a
National Building Code of India, 2016
The code is a national instrument providing guidelines for regulating the building construction activities across the country.
It is recommendatory document, and States have been asked to incorporate it into their local building bylaws, making the recommendations a mandatory requirement.
It serves as a Model Code for adoption by all agencies involved in building construction works be they Public Works Departments, other government construction departments, local bodies or private construction agencies.
It was published by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).
The document provides specifications and guidelines for design and materials that reduce the threat of destructive fires.
Under the Code, all existing and new buildings are classified by nature of use, such as residential, educational, institutional, assembly (like cinemas and auditoria), business, mercantile, industrial, storage and hazardous.
Hospitals come under the institutional category.
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