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CA Revision Module - Test 35 - Full Test - IV (From January 2023 - March 2024)

1. Consider the following statements with respect to Surrogacy rules in India

  1. The child to be born through surrogacy must have at least one gamete from the intending parents.
  2. Single women opting for surrogacy should be either a divorcee or a widow.
  3. Single women must use self-eggs and donor sperms to avail surrogacy procedure.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Surrogacy

The Centre has allowed married couples with medical complications to use donor gametes for surrogacy, revoking a previous ban.

  • Surrogacy – A practice where a woman gives birth to a child for an intending couple with the intention to hand over the child after the birth to the intending couple.
  • Surrogacy Act 2021 – It prohibits commercial surrogacy (carrier is paid), but allows altruistic surrogacy.
  • Eligibility criteria – A mandate certificate of essentiality and certificate of eligibility.
  • 2023 amendment – The donor eggs could not be used for gestational surrogacy (In-Vitro Fertilization).

Surrogacy (Regulation) Amendment Rules, 2024

  • The married couples to use a donor gamete on the condition that a District Magistrate Board certifies that either the husband or the wife suffers from a medical condition.
  • It outlines that the child to be born through surrogacy must have at least one gamete from the intending parents.
  • If both partners are unable to use their gametes due to an existing medical condition cannot opt for surrogacy.
  • Other rulesSingle women opting for surrogacy should be a divorcee or a widow.
  • They must use self-eggs and donor sperms to avail surrogacy procedure.

2. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding the Large Language Model (LLM)?

  1. They are large general-purpose language models that can be pre-trained and then fine-tuned for specific purposes.
  2. It has high parameter count that encodes the knowledge and memories the model acquires during training.
  3. Gemini and Claude are examples of Large Language Models.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Large Language Model (LLM)

The ability of Generative AI models to converse with humans and predict the next word or sentence is due to LLMs.

  • They are large general-purpose language models that can be pre-trained and then fine-tuned for specific purposes.

LLM -1

  • These models are trained to solve common language problems such as text classification, question answering, and text generation across industries, document summarization, etc.
  • Deep learning techniques – It involves the training of artificial neural networks, which are mathematical models which are believed to be inspired by the structure and functions of the human brain.
  • The neural network learns to predict the probability of a word or sequence of words given the previous words in a sentence.

Types of LLMs

  • Autoregressive model – GPT 3 is an example of this model as they predict the next word in a sequence based on previous words.
  • Transformer model – LaMDA or Gemini are based on this as they use specific type of neural network architecture for language processing.

LLM -2

  • Encoder-decoder model – It encode input text into a representation and then decode it into another language or format.
  • Next word prediction engines – Once trained, an LLM can predict the most likely next word or sequence of words based on inputs also known as prompts.
  • Features – LLMs has primary features like large, parameter and general purpose.
  • Large - This means
    • The enormous size of training data
    • High parameter count – It encode the knowledge and memories the model acquires during training.
  • General purpose – It means the model is sufficient to solve general problems that are based on the commonality of human language regardless of specific tasks, and resource restrictions.
  • Parameter – It play a crucial role in determining the model’s performance, it defines the model’s ability to solve specific task.

3. Consider the following pairs.

           Tribal Leaders                                  Relevance 

  1. Tirot Sing                              –          Hero of the Khasi Hills
  2. Komaram Bheem                –          Jal, Jangal, Zameen
  3. Alluri Sitharama Raju         –          Manyam Veerudu

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

U Tirot Sing

A statue of U Tirot Sing was unveiled recently at Indira Gandhi Cultural Centre, Dhaka, Bangladesh

  • Tirot Sing is a tribal chief known as ‘the Hero of the Khasi Hills' of Meghalaya against the British.
  • He was born in 1802 and died in Dhaka on July 17, 1835.
  • Every year on July 17, Meghalaya commemorates U Tirot Sing Day.

Komaram Bheem

  • He was born on October 22, 1901, in Sankepalli in Hyderabad.
  • He hailed from the Gond tribal community and led a rebellion against the Nizams of Hyderabad.
  • Bheem grew up in the forests without education.
  • Along with his Gond tribe, he kept moving as zamindars and businessmen exploited them.
  • He gave the slogan ‘Jal, Jangal, Zameen’ (Water, Forest, Land), which was used in the Aadivasi movement.
  • As the British government levied heavy taxes on the tribals, nearly 12 villages’ in Adilabadu were gearing up to fight the British.
  • Bheem came back and formed a guerrilla army. He operated the battle from Jodgehat forest.
  • The Nizams were initially surprised by their attack and charted out plans to take them on.
  • During one of those battles, Komaram Bheem was killed by the Nizam army.

Alluri Sitharama Raju 

  • He was fondly called Manyam Veerudu, which roughly translated to 'hero of the forest.'
  • He launched the Rampa Rebellion of 1922 against the British Madras Forest Act of 1882 which restricted the land rights of the tribal.

4. Consider the following statements with respect to e-Courts Project

  1. The project aims for universal computerisation of district and subordinate courts in the country.
  2. The e-Courts Project is based on hybrid model that allows for both physical and virtual courts to co-exist.
  3. The e-Courts Project is monitored and funded by the Ministry of Law and Justice.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

e-Courts Project

  • The e-Court project is an integrated Mission Mode Project under implementation since 2007 for ICT development of the Indian Judiciary as part of the National e-Governance Plan.
  • Aim - Universal computerisation of district and subordinate courts in the country.
  • The e-Courts Project was conceptualized on the basis of the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary in 2005.
  • Based on - Hybrid model that allows for both physical and virtual courts to co-exist.
  • Monitored and funded by - The Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice for the District Courts across the country.
  • The project envisages:
    • To provide efficient & time-bound citizen centric services delivery as detailed in e-Court Project Litigant’s Charter.
    • To develop, install & implement decision support systems in courts.
    • To automate the processes to provide transparency in accessibility of information to its stakeholders.
    • To enhance judicial productivity, both qualitatively & quantitatively, to make the justice delivery system affordable, accessible, cost effective, predictable, reliable and transparent.
  • The National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) is an online platform under the e-Courts Project.

5. With reference to Methanotrophs, consider the following statements.

  1. They are methane utilising bacteria that require methane as a source of carbon and energy for their metabolism.
  2. They are gram-negative bacteria that are capable to grow both aerobically or anaerobically.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Methanotrophs

Methylotuvimicrobium buryatense 5GB1C is a bacterial strain that consumes methane (methanotrophs).

  • Methanotrophs are methane-utilizing bacteria that require methane as a source of carbon and energy for their metabolism.
  • They are gram-negative bacteria that are capable in utilizing methane as a carbon energy source.
  • They are able to grow both aerobically or anaerobically which only need single-carbon compound to live on.
  • It can grow at low methane concentrations ranging from 200-1,000 ppm.
  • Bacteria produce biomass after consuming methane, which can be used as feed in aquaculture.

6. Consider the following statements with respect to Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), 2024

  1. It is an annual report published by German Watch since 2005.
  2. It ranks countries based on four categories which includes Energy Use and Net Zero.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI)

India ranks 7th in CCPI, 2024 which has moved up one spot from the previous CCPI and remains among the highest performers.

  • CCPI - An instrument to enable transparency in national and international climate politics.
  • An independent monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 59 countries and the European Union.
  • Published by - Germanwatch, the NewClimate Institute, and Climate Action Network International.
  • The CCPI uses a standardized framework to compare the climate performance of 63 countries and the EU, which together account for over 90% of global greenhouse gas emissions.
  • Categories – The climate mitigation performance is assessed in 4 categories:
    1. GHG emissions
    2. Renewable energy
    3. Energy use
    4. Climate policy
  • Net Zero is not a category under the index.
  • Rating – Each country are given a rating in each category that includes Very High, High, Medium, Low, Very Low and Not included.
  • Denmark remains the top-ranked country but does not perform well enough to earn an overall very high rating.
  • According to the index, no country was strong enough in all categories to achieve an overall very high rating.
  • India –India receives a high ranking in the GHG Emissions and Energy Use categories, but a medium in Climate Policy and Renewable Energy.
  • While India is the world’s most populous country, it has relatively low per capita emissions.
  • Performance of G20 nations – India (7th), Germany (14th) and the EU (16th) are only 3 G20 countries/regions are among the high performers in CCPI 2024.

CCPI

7. Consider the following passage.

He popularised and improved the musical instrument ‘plucked rabab’. He was among the Navaratnas (9 jewels) at the court of the Mughal Emperor Akbar. A festival is celebrated every year in the month of December to pay tribute to this person.

The above passage best describes who among the following personality?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Tansen

  • Tansen Samaroh is a musical extravaganza celebrated every year in the month of December, near his tomb at Gwalior district, Madhya Pradesh.
  • The festival is organized to pay tribute to the Great Indian Musical Maestro Tansen.
  • Tansen popularised and improved the musical instrument ‘plucked rabab’ (of Central Asian origin).
  • He was among the Navaratnas (9 jewels) at the court of the Mughal Emperor Akbar who gave him the title Mian, an honorific, meaning learned man.

8. Consider the following pairs of substance used in doping and their effects.

Substances                         Effects

  1. Stimulant                  –          Build more muscles
  2. Diuretic                     –          Hides fatigue
  3. Blood doping             –          Boost oxygen levels
  4. Gene doping              –          Manipulates body weight

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Substance used in doping

  • Doping – It is the consumption of certain prohibited substances by athletes to enhance performance.

Doping substances

  • Androgenic agents like anabolic steroid – Allow athletes to train harder and build more muscles.
  • Stimulants – Make athelets hide fatigue by increasing heart rate and blood flow.
  • Diuretics & masking agents – To remove fluids from the body, which can hide other drug use and can also help in manipulating weight.
  • Gene doping – Manipulating gene cell or body cells to improve performances.
  • Blood doping – Blood is removed from the body and injected back to boost oxygen levels.

Monitoring of Doping in sports

  • GloballyWorld Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) monitors doping in all kinds of competitive sports.
  • At national level (In India)National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) that is provided statutory backing by National Anti-Doping Act, 2022.

9. Consider the following statements with respect to China Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC)

  1. It is a part of Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) of China.
  2. It aims to circumvent the Strait of Malacca and the South China Sea.
  3. It enters Pakistan Occupied Kashmir (PoK) through the Karakoram Highway in Gilgit Baltistan.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

China Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC)

  • It is 3000km long economic corridor.
  • Part ofBelt and Road Initiative (BRI) of China.
  • Objectives – To circumvent the Straits of Malacca and the South China Sea.
  • To improve infrastructure within Pakistan for better trade with China and to further integrate the countries of South Asia
  • To connect the deep-sea Pakistani ports of Gwadar and Karachi to China’s Xinjiang province and beyond by overland routes.
  • Contention – It enters Pakistan Occupied Kashmir (PoK) through the Karakoram Highway in Gilgit Baltistan.

CPEC

Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)

  • A connectivity initiative to revive the ancient Silk Road across Eurasia and Africa.
  • Aim – To connect China with Europe by land and rail, and to Africa and Asia by sea.
  • 3 major undertakings under Project South Asia
    • China-Myanmar Economic Corridor (CMEC)
    • Nepal-China Trans-Himalayan Multi-dimensional Connectivity Network
    • China Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC)

10. Pirola, sometimes seen in the news recently, is related to?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Pirola

  • Pirola or BA2.86 is one of the lineages of highly-mutated Omicron variant of Covid-19 virus.
  • Pirola has around 30 genetic changes (mutations) from its parent Omicron variant.
  • This gives it the capacity to be immune evasive and highly transmissible.
  • Symptoms – Stuff nose, fever, fatigue, cough and sneezing, rashes, eye redness and diarrhoea.
  • Pirola might have a higher affinity for infecting individuals who have either previously contracted COVID-19 or have been vaccinated against it.

11. Recently, scientists have observed that an ineffectiveness of the bivalent or variant-specific boosters is due to immune imprinting. Consider the following statements with respect to Immune Imprinting.

  1. It is a tendency of the body to repeat its immune response based on the first variant of a pathogen it encountered.
  2. It can occur through both infection and vaccination.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

Immune Imprinting

  • It is a tendency of the body to repeat its immune response when it comes across a newer or slightly different variant of the same pathogen.
  • The immune response of the body is based on the first variant it encountered through infection or vaccination.
  • It was first observed in 1947, when scientists noted that in flu patients and termed as ‘original antigenic sin’.
  • Role – It acts as a database for the immune system, helping it put up a better response to repeat infections.
  • Issue - The immune system rather than generating new B cells, activates memory B cells, when a similar, not identical, variant of the virus is encountered by the body.
  • These cross-reactive antibodies do offer some protection but aren’t as effective as the ones produced by the B cells.

12. “Dar-Es-Salaam Declaration”, sometimes seen in the news recently, refers to?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Dar-Es-Salaam Declaration

  • A declaration on ending AIDS in children by 2030.
  • It was announced at the first ministerial meeting of the Global Alliance to end AIDS in Children, which brings together the 12 African countries with UNAIDS and other health agencies.
  • Jaipur Declaration – It was adopted at the World Security Congress, jointly organized by Railway Protection Force (RPF) and International Union of Railways (UIC).
  • Aim – To explore innovative approaches to help global Railway organizations to achieve their longterm goal of safety and security.
  • UIC committed to provide safe and secure rail network across globe, by activating Asia-Pacific, Latin America and African regional assemblies by 2025.

13. Consider the following pairs.

            GI Tag products                          States

  1. Kapdaganda shawl               - Odisha
  2. Kalonunia Rice                     - Bihar
  3. Adi Kekir                               - Sikkim
  4. Wancho Wooden Craft        - Arunachal Pradesh

How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

GI Tag

  • Geographical indications assign products to the place of its origin, conveying an assurance of quality and distinctiveness for such goods.
  • GI is defined under Article-23 and 24 of the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
  • Under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, GIs are covered as an element of Intellectual Property Rights
  • India is a member of the WTO and thus enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999 that came into force from 2003.
  • GI tagged products can be both Natural and Man-made and is valid for ten years.
  • The first product in India to be accorded with GI tag was Darjeeling Tea in the year 2004-05.

GI tagged products in India

  • Kapdaganda Shawl is from Odisha, the traditional knitted shawls of the hill tribe Dongaria Kondh are unique.
  • Kalonuina Rice is a traditional black-husked non-basmati tyoe scented rice of Tarai region (foothills of eastern Himalayas) of West Bengal, India.
  • Adi Kekir  is a variety of ginger produced in East Siang, Siang and Upper Siang districts of Arunachal Pradesh known for its size and taste.
  • Wancho Wooden Craft is from Arunachal Pradesh, they are unique as they feature tobacco pipes with head-shaped bowls and drinking mugs showing warriors carrying heads.

14. World Employment and Social Outlook Report, is published by?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : c

World Employment and Social Outlook Report, 2023

  • It details the impact of economic slowdown on the global labour market.
  • Released by- International Labour Organisation
  • Time period – Annual report
  • Theme- The value of essential work.
  • 2023 report- Calls for a revaluation of the work of key workers to reflect their social contribution and greater investment in key sectors.
  • Key workers- Food system workers, health workers, retail workers, security workers, manual workers, cleaning and sanitation workers, transport workers, and technicians and clerical workers.

Aspects

Trend

Global unemployment rate

5.1%, a modest improvement on 2022

Global labour force participation rate

It is expected to decline further in 2023, reaching 60.5% the lowest level since 1990.

Global labour income share

It has fallen by 3.3% points since 2004 indicating worsening of income inequality

Number of workers in extreme or moderate poverty

It is estimated to increase by 34 million in 2023, reversing the progress made in the past decade.

Women workforce

They account for 38% of all key workers globally, though they are the majority in health and retail.

15. Consider the following statements with respect to the Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) Project:

  1. It is a space based telescope designed to observe the universe in ultraviolet wavelengths to measure the history of star formation in the universe.
  2. The project will be set up in Mauna Kea, an inactive volcano on the island of Hawaii.
  3. India is not a participatory in this project.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : a

Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) Project

  • It will be the world’s most advanced and capable ground-based optical, near-infrared, and mid-infrared observatory. (not ultraviolet)
  • The TMT has been conceived as a 30-metre diameter primary-mirror optical and infrared telescope that will enable observations into deep space.
  • It is proposed as a joint collaboration involving institutions in the U.S., Japan, China, Canada and India.
  • The project will be set up in Mauna Kea, an inactive volcano on the island of Hawaii, United States.

India’s participation

  • Indian participation in the project was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2014.
  • The Aryabhatta Research Institute for Observational Sciences (ARIES), Nainital, The Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bangalore and the Inter-University Center for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune are the three main institutes constituting TMT-India.
  • The activities of TMT-India will be coordinated by the India TMT Coordination Centre (ITCC) set up by the Department of Science and Technology, with IIA as the nodal agency of ITCC.
  • India to provide the project with hardware, instruments, software worth Rs.200 million.
  • India TMT will be jointly funded by the Departments of Science and Technology and Atomic Energy.

16. Consider the following statements with respect to the World Cities Culture Forum

  1. It is an initiative of UNESCO to strengthen cultural activities, goods, services and international cooperation for sustainable development.
  2. It covers seven creative fields including Gastronomy, Literature and Music.
  3. Kozhikode is the first Indian city to get City of Literature tag under this forum.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : d

World Cities Culture Forum

Bengaluru has become the first Indian city to become part of the World Cities Culture Forum (WCCF)

  • World Cities Culture Forum (WCCF) was founded in 2012 by Justine Simons OBE, London’s Deputy Mayor for Culture & the Creative Industries.
  • WCCF - It is a global network of cities that share research and intelligence, and explore the role of culture in future prosperity.
  • The network currently has 40 cities spanning six continents.
  • Bengaluru is set to join the league of cities like New York, London, Paris, Tokyo and Dubai among others.
  • Bengaluru is the only Indian city in this forum.
  • WCCF will work in collaboration with Unboxing BLR Foundation in Bengaluru.        
  • The annual world cities culture summit is hosted on a rotating basis by city partners.
  • The summit allows city leaders to share ideas and knowledge about the role of culture as an organising principle for the sustainable city of the future.
  • Helsinki (Capital of Finland) hosted the World Cities Culture Summit 2022.

UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN)

UNESCO has published the new list of 55 creative cities on World Cities Day (Oct 31st), in which 2 Indian cities Kozhikode and Gwalior were included.

  • Launch Year - 2004
  • Eligibility - UNESCO’s member states and associate members
  • Updation Time - Once every 2 years
  • Total Cities (2023) - 350 in more than 100 countries
  • Objective - It aims to strengthen cultural activities, goods, services and international cooperation for sustainable development.
  • The UNESCO Creative Cities Network covers seven creative fields: Crafts and Folk Art, Design, Film, Gastronomy, Literature, Media Arts, and Music.
  • Kozhikode is the first Indian city to get City of Literature tag.

7 Creative Fields of UCCN

Indian Cities in UCCN

Crafts and Folk Arts

Jaipur (2015), Srinagar (2021)

Design

-

Film

Mumbai (2019)

Gastronomy

Hyderabad (2019)

Literature

Kozhikode (2023)

Media Arts

-

Music

Chennai (2017), Varanasi (2015), Gwalior (2023)

17. Consider the following statements with respect to All India Tiger Estimation Report, 2022

  1. Bandipur Tiger Reserve holds the highest tiger population among all tiger reserves in India.
  2. Western Ghats has experienced localized declines in the tiger population.
  3. Madhya Pradesh has the largest tiger population among all states in India.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

All India Tiger Estimation Report, 2022

  • India currently harbors almost 75% of the world’s wild tiger population.
  • India categorized tiger habitats into 5 major landscapes based on biogeography and interconnectivity, enabling effective ecological and management-based strategies.
  • The report is released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • An increase in unique tiger sightings from 2461 in 2018 to 3080 in 2022, now more than 3/4th of the tiger population is found within protected areas.
  • It reflects a commendable annual growth rate of 6.1% per annum.
  • Increasing trend – Central India and the Shivalik Hills and Gangetic Plains, particularly in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Maharashtra.
  • Declining trendWestern Ghats has experienced localized declines in the tiger population.
  •  Large tiger populationMadhya Pradesh, followed by Karnataka (563) & Uttarakhand (560), and Maharashtra (444).
  • Small tiger population – Mizoram, Nagaland, Jharkhand, Goa, Chhattisgarh, and Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Approximately 35% of the tiger reserves urgently require enhanced protection measures, habitat restoration, ungulate augmentation, and subsequent tiger reintroduction.
  • Corbett Tiger reserves has the maximum tigers in the tiger reserve in India.

Tigers within Tiger reserves

Corbett (260)

Kanha (105)

Bandipur (150)

Kaziranga (104)

Nagarhole (141)

Sundarbans (100)

Bandhavgarh (135)

Tadoba (97)

Dudhwa (135)

Sathyamangalam (85)

Mudumalai(114)

Pench-MP (77)

Tiger population

18. A replica of wheel with 24 spokes served as the backdrop of Indian Prime Minister's welcome handshake with G20 leaders during 2023 summit. This wheel is a replica of which one of the following?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Konark wheel

A replica of Wheel served as the backdrop of Indian Prime Minister's welcome handshake with G20 leaders.

  • It is a replica of Konark Wheel from the Sun temple in Odisha.
  • Built in – 13th century, under the reign of King Narasimhadeva-I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
  • Features – It has 24 spokes representing the wheels of Lord Surya's sun chariot.
  • Its rotating motion symbolises time, Kaalchakra, as well as progress and continuous change.
  • Konark sun temple, an example of Kalinga architecture, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.Konark Wheel

19. AITIGA Agreement, sometimes seen in the news, is a trade deal between India and?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

AITIGA Agreement

  • ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA) is a trade deal between the ten member states of ASEAN and India.
  • ASEAN and India signed the Agreement at the 7th ASEAN Economic Ministers-India Consultations in Bangkok, Thailand in 2009.
  • The Agreement, which came into effect in 2010, is also referred to as the ASEAN-India Free Trade Agreement.
  • The Agreement has led to steadily increasing trade between ASEAN and India since its signing.

20. Consider the following statements with respect to PM-DAKSH Yojana

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme that aims to improve the skill level of marginalized individuals.
  2. It is being implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
  3. There is no income threshold for eligibility under this scheme.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  • a. 
  • b. 
  • c. 
  • d. 
Answer : b

Pradhan Mantri Dakshata Aur Kushalata Sampanna Hitgrahi (PM-DAKSH) Yojana

  • PM-DAKSH Yojana empowers millions from India's marginalized communities.
  • Aim - To enhance competency level of the target groups to make them employable both in self- employment and wage-employment for their socio-economic development.
  • Type - It is a Central Sector Scheme.
  • Launched by – Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
  • Implemented by – Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship.
  • Target Groups – SCs, OBCs, EBCs, DNTs Safai Karamcharis including waste pickers etc.
  • Age criterion – 18-45 years.
  • Income criteria
    • No income limit for SCs, SafaiKaramcharis Including wastepicker and DNT.
    • The annual family income should be below Rs.3 lakh for OBCs and
    • Annual family income should be below Rs.1 lakh for EBCs (Economically Backward Classes).
  • The cost of training is as per common norms issued by Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship and it varies as per duration of the course.
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